MATERNITY PRACTICE EXAM WITH
CORRECT ANSWERS
A 35-year-old primigravida client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium
sulfate via continuous IV infusion. Which assessment data indicates to the nurse that
the client is experiencing magnesium sulfate toxicity?
a. Deep tendon reflexes 2+
b. Blood pressure 140/90
c. Respiratory rate 18/minute
d. Urine output 90 ml/4 hours - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. Urine output 90 ml/4 hours
Urine outputs of less than 100 ml/4 hours (D), absent DTRs, and a respiratory rate of
less than 12 breaths/minute are cardinal signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity
A 42-week gestational client is receiving an intravenous infusion of oxytocin (Pitocin) to
augment early labor. The nurse should discontinue the oxytocin infusion for which
pattern of contractions?
a. Transition labor with contractions every 2 minutes, lasting 90 seconds each
a. Early labor with contractions every 5 minutes, lasting 40 seconds each
c. Active labor with contractions every 31 minutes, lasting 60 seconds each
d. Active labor with contractions every 2 to 3 minutes, lasting 70 to 80 seconds each -
CORRECT ANSWERS-a. Transition labor with contractions every 2 minutes, lasting 90
seconds each
Contractions pattern (A) describes hyperstimulation and an inadequate resting time
between contractions to allow for placental perfusion. The oxytocin infusion should be
discontinued.
A client at 30-weeks gestation, complaining of pressure over the pubic area, is admitted
for observation. She is contracting irregularly and demonstrates underlying uterine
irritability. Vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is closed, thick, and high. Based
on these data, which intervention should the nurse implement first?
a. Provide oral hydration
b. Have a complete blood count (CBC) drawn
c. Obtain a specimen for urine analysis
, d. Place the client on strict bedrest - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. Obtain a specimen for
urine analysis
Obtaining a urine analysis (C) should be done first because preterm clients with uterine
irritability and contractions are often suffering from a urinary tract infection, and this
should be ruled out first.
A client at 32-weeks gestation comes to the prenatal clinic with complaints of pedal
edema, dyspnea, fatigue, and a moist cough. Which question is most important for the
nurse to ask this client?
a. Which symptom did you experience first?
b. Are you eating large amounts of salty foods?
c. Have you visited a foreign country recently?
d. Do you have a history of rheumatic fever? - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. Do you have a
history of rheumatic fever?
Clients with a history of rheumatic fever (D) may develop mitral valve prolapse, which
increases the risk for cardiac decompensation due to the increased blood volume that
occurs during pregnancy, so obtaining information about the client's health history is
priority.
A client in active labor complains of cramps in her leg. What intervention should the
nurse implement?
a. Ask the client if she takes a daily calcium tablet
b. Extend the leg and dorsiflex the foot
c. Lower the leg off the side of the bed
d. Elevate the leg above the heart - CORRECT ANSWERS-b. Extend the leg and
dorsiflex the foot
Dorsiflexing the foot by puching the sole of the foot forward or by stnading (if the client
is capable) (B), and putting the heel of the foot on the floor is the best means of
relieving leg cramps.
A client is admitted with the diagnosis of total placenta previa. Which finding is most
important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider immediately?
a. Heart rate of 100 beats/minute
b. Variable fetal heart rate
c. Onset of uterine contractions
d. Burning urination - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. Onset of uterine contractions
Total (complete) placenta previa involves the placenta covering the entire cerviccal os
(opening). The onset of uterine contractions (C) places the client at risk for dilation and
placental separation, which causes painless hemorrhaging.
A client receiving epidural anesthesia begins to experience nausea and becomes pale
and clammy. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
CORRECT ANSWERS
A 35-year-old primigravida client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium
sulfate via continuous IV infusion. Which assessment data indicates to the nurse that
the client is experiencing magnesium sulfate toxicity?
a. Deep tendon reflexes 2+
b. Blood pressure 140/90
c. Respiratory rate 18/minute
d. Urine output 90 ml/4 hours - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. Urine output 90 ml/4 hours
Urine outputs of less than 100 ml/4 hours (D), absent DTRs, and a respiratory rate of
less than 12 breaths/minute are cardinal signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity
A 42-week gestational client is receiving an intravenous infusion of oxytocin (Pitocin) to
augment early labor. The nurse should discontinue the oxytocin infusion for which
pattern of contractions?
a. Transition labor with contractions every 2 minutes, lasting 90 seconds each
a. Early labor with contractions every 5 minutes, lasting 40 seconds each
c. Active labor with contractions every 31 minutes, lasting 60 seconds each
d. Active labor with contractions every 2 to 3 minutes, lasting 70 to 80 seconds each -
CORRECT ANSWERS-a. Transition labor with contractions every 2 minutes, lasting 90
seconds each
Contractions pattern (A) describes hyperstimulation and an inadequate resting time
between contractions to allow for placental perfusion. The oxytocin infusion should be
discontinued.
A client at 30-weeks gestation, complaining of pressure over the pubic area, is admitted
for observation. She is contracting irregularly and demonstrates underlying uterine
irritability. Vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is closed, thick, and high. Based
on these data, which intervention should the nurse implement first?
a. Provide oral hydration
b. Have a complete blood count (CBC) drawn
c. Obtain a specimen for urine analysis
, d. Place the client on strict bedrest - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. Obtain a specimen for
urine analysis
Obtaining a urine analysis (C) should be done first because preterm clients with uterine
irritability and contractions are often suffering from a urinary tract infection, and this
should be ruled out first.
A client at 32-weeks gestation comes to the prenatal clinic with complaints of pedal
edema, dyspnea, fatigue, and a moist cough. Which question is most important for the
nurse to ask this client?
a. Which symptom did you experience first?
b. Are you eating large amounts of salty foods?
c. Have you visited a foreign country recently?
d. Do you have a history of rheumatic fever? - CORRECT ANSWERS-d. Do you have a
history of rheumatic fever?
Clients with a history of rheumatic fever (D) may develop mitral valve prolapse, which
increases the risk for cardiac decompensation due to the increased blood volume that
occurs during pregnancy, so obtaining information about the client's health history is
priority.
A client in active labor complains of cramps in her leg. What intervention should the
nurse implement?
a. Ask the client if she takes a daily calcium tablet
b. Extend the leg and dorsiflex the foot
c. Lower the leg off the side of the bed
d. Elevate the leg above the heart - CORRECT ANSWERS-b. Extend the leg and
dorsiflex the foot
Dorsiflexing the foot by puching the sole of the foot forward or by stnading (if the client
is capable) (B), and putting the heel of the foot on the floor is the best means of
relieving leg cramps.
A client is admitted with the diagnosis of total placenta previa. Which finding is most
important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider immediately?
a. Heart rate of 100 beats/minute
b. Variable fetal heart rate
c. Onset of uterine contractions
d. Burning urination - CORRECT ANSWERS-c. Onset of uterine contractions
Total (complete) placenta previa involves the placenta covering the entire cerviccal os
(opening). The onset of uterine contractions (C) places the client at risk for dilation and
placental separation, which causes painless hemorrhaging.
A client receiving epidural anesthesia begins to experience nausea and becomes pale
and clammy. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
