NURS 8024 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS GRADED A+.
who is the certifying body we take the WHNP boards through? - correct answer. NCC
(National Certification Corporation)
this is a nurse who has graduate level of education; passed national certification, built
on competencies of an RN, is educationally prepared to take on the
responsibility/accountability of patient issues - correct answer. Advanced Practice
Nurse (APRN)
What are the four APRN roles? - correct answer. NP
CNM
CNS
CRNA
The national organization of nurse practitioner faculties (NONPF) describes NINE core
competencies...what are they - correct answer. scientific foundation
leadership
quality
practice inquiry
technology/information literacy
policy
health delivery system
ethics
independent practice
2 national organizations that provide guidelines for WHNP practice and education? -
correct answer. american association of colleges of nursing (AACN)
national organization of NP faculties (NONPF)
Process for certification maintenance for an NP - correct answer. -cert is valid for 3
years
-complete continuing competency assessment at the beginning of your maintenance
cycle
-continuing education earned is based on your education plan after the assessment is
completed
maintain current/active, unencumbered licensure, update and upload licensure
,main provisions of patient protection and affordable care act? - correct answer.
increase access to insurance
decrease cost
consumer protection
wellness/prevention
increase quality of healthcare
expand workforce
what is the scope of practice of a WHNP - correct answer. providing gynecologic,
sexual, obstetric, and reproductive care, mgmt, family planning, STI dx/tx, menopause
mgmt, postmenopausal care, and primary care to women.
Who Governs the scope of practice of WHNP? - correct answer. **established by the
nurse practice act in the STATE which they are licensed/practice in
what is prescriptive authority? - correct answer. The ability and extent of NP's ability to
prescribe medication; is dependent on state nurse practice act
what are the 4 levels of management of care? - correct answer. independent
consultation
referral
collaboration
example of independent level management of care - correct answer. functioning as a
lone provider that manages previously and undiagnosed patients.
example of consultation level management of care - correct answer. request for
direction or help on a dx/tx plan from another provider
example of referral level management of care - correct answer. another provider
accepting the ongoing treatment/care for a problem
example of collaboration level management of care - correct answer. joint
communication and decision-making between healthcare professionals that are working
towards mutual goals of patient care
this is the process by which an NP will receive the authority of bill insurance companies
for the services they provide; this is usually completed by the practice manager.
Involves a provider obtaining authorization to practice - correct answer.
credentialing/privileging process
these are considered "practice guidelines"; the "how to" of a discipline or specialty. they
clarify scope and authority r/t a specific activity by defining who can do what activity,
with what level of supervision, and when (stated at the state board/institution level) -
correct answer. standards of practice
,provision of services in a manner consistent with care as a another professional with
similar training and experience faced with a similar situation would provide; sets
minimum criteria for job proficiency (stated by medicare, joint commission) - correct
answer. standards of care
independence; capacity for making decisions, judgement, knowledge, and self-
determination.
ex: clinical decision making - correct answer. autonomy
Obligation to promote patient's well being, or an act of kindness/charity.
ex: holding a dying patients hand; "do good" - correct answer. Beneficence
the obligation not to harm or cause injury
ex: stopping a medication that is causing harmful SE's - correct answer. nonmalifience
remaining TRUTHFUL w/ the patients regardless of any circumstances
ex: telling the patient the truth, never lying, even if it may cause distress - correct
answer. veracity
moral and ethics of a provider; keeping your promise
ex: telling a patient you will come back and check on their pain, and actually doing so -
correct answer. fidelity
unity and mutuality; FAIR distribution of resources and care in healthcare
ex: providing the same treatment options to two different patients - correct answer.
justice
integration of clinical expertise with the best available clinical evidence from research; is
the "conscientious, explicit, and judicious use of theory-derived, research-based
information in making decisions about care delivery to patients and in consideration of
individual needs and preferences. - correct answer. evidence-based practice
What does HIPAA stand for? - correct answer. Health Insurance Portability and
Accountability Act (1996)
what is the health insurance portability and accountability act? - correct answer.
federal law that required the creation of national standards to protect sensitive patient
health information from being disclosed without the patient's consent or knowledge
, The process of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion; the
MOVEMENT of drugs within the body, what the BODY DOES to a drug - correct
answer. pharmacokinetics
study of drug concentration and the patients response; the study of a drug's EFFECT,
including the duration and magnitude of the response in relation to the drug dosage,
what the DRUG DOES to the body - correct answer. pharmacodynamics
study of how different genes in the full genome determine drug behavior; identifies
genes involved in drug metabolism and drug response - correct answer.
pharmacogenomics
what are the four factors that affect pharmacokinetics? - correct answer. distribution
absorption
metabolism
excretion
(DAME)
process by which a drug becomes available to body fluids/tissues? - correct answer.
distribution
The movement of drug particles from the GI tract to body fluids by passive absorption,
active absorption, or pinocytosis. - correct answer. absorption
change of a drug (primarily in the liver) by CYP450 enzymes, into metabolites that may
be active or inactive; alters a drug so it can be eliminated. - correct answer.
metabolism
removal of a drug from the body; primarily occurs in the kidneys, but can also occur
through the skin, lungs, bile, sweat, breast milk, or feces - correct answer. excretion
use of prescribing of a drug for conditions other than what it has been approved for by
the FDA... - correct answer. off-label use
warning that appears on the insert for a medication that notes harm with the use of the
drug; mandated by FDA - correct answer. black-box warning
off label drug uses in pregnancy. - correct answer. Unisom (morning sickness),
Methotrexate (ectopic)
black-box warning in pregnancy - correct answer. isotretinoin (accutane), ACE/ARB's
Drugs with NO currently accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse - correct
answer. schedule I (heroin)
AND ANSWERS GRADED A+.
who is the certifying body we take the WHNP boards through? - correct answer. NCC
(National Certification Corporation)
this is a nurse who has graduate level of education; passed national certification, built
on competencies of an RN, is educationally prepared to take on the
responsibility/accountability of patient issues - correct answer. Advanced Practice
Nurse (APRN)
What are the four APRN roles? - correct answer. NP
CNM
CNS
CRNA
The national organization of nurse practitioner faculties (NONPF) describes NINE core
competencies...what are they - correct answer. scientific foundation
leadership
quality
practice inquiry
technology/information literacy
policy
health delivery system
ethics
independent practice
2 national organizations that provide guidelines for WHNP practice and education? -
correct answer. american association of colleges of nursing (AACN)
national organization of NP faculties (NONPF)
Process for certification maintenance for an NP - correct answer. -cert is valid for 3
years
-complete continuing competency assessment at the beginning of your maintenance
cycle
-continuing education earned is based on your education plan after the assessment is
completed
maintain current/active, unencumbered licensure, update and upload licensure
,main provisions of patient protection and affordable care act? - correct answer.
increase access to insurance
decrease cost
consumer protection
wellness/prevention
increase quality of healthcare
expand workforce
what is the scope of practice of a WHNP - correct answer. providing gynecologic,
sexual, obstetric, and reproductive care, mgmt, family planning, STI dx/tx, menopause
mgmt, postmenopausal care, and primary care to women.
Who Governs the scope of practice of WHNP? - correct answer. **established by the
nurse practice act in the STATE which they are licensed/practice in
what is prescriptive authority? - correct answer. The ability and extent of NP's ability to
prescribe medication; is dependent on state nurse practice act
what are the 4 levels of management of care? - correct answer. independent
consultation
referral
collaboration
example of independent level management of care - correct answer. functioning as a
lone provider that manages previously and undiagnosed patients.
example of consultation level management of care - correct answer. request for
direction or help on a dx/tx plan from another provider
example of referral level management of care - correct answer. another provider
accepting the ongoing treatment/care for a problem
example of collaboration level management of care - correct answer. joint
communication and decision-making between healthcare professionals that are working
towards mutual goals of patient care
this is the process by which an NP will receive the authority of bill insurance companies
for the services they provide; this is usually completed by the practice manager.
Involves a provider obtaining authorization to practice - correct answer.
credentialing/privileging process
these are considered "practice guidelines"; the "how to" of a discipline or specialty. they
clarify scope and authority r/t a specific activity by defining who can do what activity,
with what level of supervision, and when (stated at the state board/institution level) -
correct answer. standards of practice
,provision of services in a manner consistent with care as a another professional with
similar training and experience faced with a similar situation would provide; sets
minimum criteria for job proficiency (stated by medicare, joint commission) - correct
answer. standards of care
independence; capacity for making decisions, judgement, knowledge, and self-
determination.
ex: clinical decision making - correct answer. autonomy
Obligation to promote patient's well being, or an act of kindness/charity.
ex: holding a dying patients hand; "do good" - correct answer. Beneficence
the obligation not to harm or cause injury
ex: stopping a medication that is causing harmful SE's - correct answer. nonmalifience
remaining TRUTHFUL w/ the patients regardless of any circumstances
ex: telling the patient the truth, never lying, even if it may cause distress - correct
answer. veracity
moral and ethics of a provider; keeping your promise
ex: telling a patient you will come back and check on their pain, and actually doing so -
correct answer. fidelity
unity and mutuality; FAIR distribution of resources and care in healthcare
ex: providing the same treatment options to two different patients - correct answer.
justice
integration of clinical expertise with the best available clinical evidence from research; is
the "conscientious, explicit, and judicious use of theory-derived, research-based
information in making decisions about care delivery to patients and in consideration of
individual needs and preferences. - correct answer. evidence-based practice
What does HIPAA stand for? - correct answer. Health Insurance Portability and
Accountability Act (1996)
what is the health insurance portability and accountability act? - correct answer.
federal law that required the creation of national standards to protect sensitive patient
health information from being disclosed without the patient's consent or knowledge
, The process of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion; the
MOVEMENT of drugs within the body, what the BODY DOES to a drug - correct
answer. pharmacokinetics
study of drug concentration and the patients response; the study of a drug's EFFECT,
including the duration and magnitude of the response in relation to the drug dosage,
what the DRUG DOES to the body - correct answer. pharmacodynamics
study of how different genes in the full genome determine drug behavior; identifies
genes involved in drug metabolism and drug response - correct answer.
pharmacogenomics
what are the four factors that affect pharmacokinetics? - correct answer. distribution
absorption
metabolism
excretion
(DAME)
process by which a drug becomes available to body fluids/tissues? - correct answer.
distribution
The movement of drug particles from the GI tract to body fluids by passive absorption,
active absorption, or pinocytosis. - correct answer. absorption
change of a drug (primarily in the liver) by CYP450 enzymes, into metabolites that may
be active or inactive; alters a drug so it can be eliminated. - correct answer.
metabolism
removal of a drug from the body; primarily occurs in the kidneys, but can also occur
through the skin, lungs, bile, sweat, breast milk, or feces - correct answer. excretion
use of prescribing of a drug for conditions other than what it has been approved for by
the FDA... - correct answer. off-label use
warning that appears on the insert for a medication that notes harm with the use of the
drug; mandated by FDA - correct answer. black-box warning
off label drug uses in pregnancy. - correct answer. Unisom (morning sickness),
Methotrexate (ectopic)
black-box warning in pregnancy - correct answer. isotretinoin (accutane), ACE/ARB's
Drugs with NO currently accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse - correct
answer. schedule I (heroin)
