Ch 4 Psychopharmacology Test Bank
Questions With Correct Detailed
Answers.
Which of the following medications would be an appropriate PRN medication for an
individuals with anxiety symptoms?
A. Buspirone
B. Alprazolam
C. Fluoxetine
D. Sertraline - ANSWER- ANSWER: B --Benzodiazepam CNS depressant with quick
onset of relaxation
A client who takes haloperidol begins to show tremors and a shuffling gait. Which of the
following PRN medications should the nurse chose to administer for these symptoms?
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Diazepam
C. Benztropine
D. Amoxapine - ANSWER- ANSWER: C client is exhibiting signs of extrapyramidal
syndrome (EPS)
A child is taking guanfacine for ADHD. Which of the following would be part of the client
education associated with administration of this medication?
A. Do not take with foods that contain tyramine
B. Always use sunblock when outdoors
C. Report for blood tests once a month
D. Do not discontinue medication abruptly - ANSWER- ANSWER: D Alpha Agonist
(stimulates receptor)
1. The nurse manager on the psychiatric unit was explaining to the new staff the
differences between typical and atypical antipsychotics. The nurse correctly states that
atypical antipsychotics:
A. Remain in the system longer
B. Act more quickly to reduce delusions
C. Produce fewer extrapyramidal effects
D. Are risk free for neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) - ANSWER- ANS: C Atypical
antipsychotics produce less D2blockade; thus movement disorders are less of a
problem. No evidence suggests that the medication remains in the system longer nor
that it acts more quickly to reduce delusions. The atypicals are not risk free for NMS
, 2. The nurse would assess for neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) if a patient on
haloperidol (Haldol) develops a:
A. 30 mm Hg decrease in blood pressure reading
B. Respiratory rate of 24 respirations per minute
C. Temperature reading of 104° F
D. Pulse rate of 70 beats per minute - ANSWER- ANS: C Increased temperature is the
cardinal sign of NMS. This BP is not a significant feature of NMS. There are no
significant findings to support the options related to respirations or pulse rate.
3. A patient taking fluphenazine (Prolixin) complains of dry mouth and blurred vision.
What would the nurse assess as the likely cause of these symptoms?
A. Decreased dopamine at receptor sites
B. Blockade of histamine
C. Cholinergic blockade
D. Adrenergic blocking - ANSWER- ANS: C Fluphenazine administration produces
blockade of cholinergic receptors giving rise to anticholinergic effects, such as dry
mouth, blurred vision, and constipation.
4. Which behavior displayed by a patient receiving a typical antipsychotic medication
would be assessed as displaying behaviors characteristic of tardive dyskinesia (TD)?
A. Grimacing and lip smacking
B. Falling asleep in the chair and refusing to eat lunch
C. Experiencing muscle rigidity and tremors
D. Having excessive salivation and drooling - ANSWER- ANS: A
TD manifests as abnormal movements of voluntary muscle groups after a prolonged
period of dopamine
blockade. Movements may affect any muscle group, but muscles of the face, mouth,
tongue, and digits are
commonly affected. Falling asleep is reflective of the sedative effect of these
medications. Muscle rigidity and drooling reflect EPS caused from imbalance between
dopamine and acetylcholine.
5. A nurse administers a medication that potentiates the action of GABA. Which finding
would be expected?
A. Reduced anxiety
B. Improved memory
C. More organized thinking
D. Fewer sensory perceptual alterations - ANSWER- ANS: A
Increased levels of GABA reduce anxiety, thus any potentiation of GABA action should
result in anxiety
Questions With Correct Detailed
Answers.
Which of the following medications would be an appropriate PRN medication for an
individuals with anxiety symptoms?
A. Buspirone
B. Alprazolam
C. Fluoxetine
D. Sertraline - ANSWER- ANSWER: B --Benzodiazepam CNS depressant with quick
onset of relaxation
A client who takes haloperidol begins to show tremors and a shuffling gait. Which of the
following PRN medications should the nurse chose to administer for these symptoms?
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Diazepam
C. Benztropine
D. Amoxapine - ANSWER- ANSWER: C client is exhibiting signs of extrapyramidal
syndrome (EPS)
A child is taking guanfacine for ADHD. Which of the following would be part of the client
education associated with administration of this medication?
A. Do not take with foods that contain tyramine
B. Always use sunblock when outdoors
C. Report for blood tests once a month
D. Do not discontinue medication abruptly - ANSWER- ANSWER: D Alpha Agonist
(stimulates receptor)
1. The nurse manager on the psychiatric unit was explaining to the new staff the
differences between typical and atypical antipsychotics. The nurse correctly states that
atypical antipsychotics:
A. Remain in the system longer
B. Act more quickly to reduce delusions
C. Produce fewer extrapyramidal effects
D. Are risk free for neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) - ANSWER- ANS: C Atypical
antipsychotics produce less D2blockade; thus movement disorders are less of a
problem. No evidence suggests that the medication remains in the system longer nor
that it acts more quickly to reduce delusions. The atypicals are not risk free for NMS
, 2. The nurse would assess for neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) if a patient on
haloperidol (Haldol) develops a:
A. 30 mm Hg decrease in blood pressure reading
B. Respiratory rate of 24 respirations per minute
C. Temperature reading of 104° F
D. Pulse rate of 70 beats per minute - ANSWER- ANS: C Increased temperature is the
cardinal sign of NMS. This BP is not a significant feature of NMS. There are no
significant findings to support the options related to respirations or pulse rate.
3. A patient taking fluphenazine (Prolixin) complains of dry mouth and blurred vision.
What would the nurse assess as the likely cause of these symptoms?
A. Decreased dopamine at receptor sites
B. Blockade of histamine
C. Cholinergic blockade
D. Adrenergic blocking - ANSWER- ANS: C Fluphenazine administration produces
blockade of cholinergic receptors giving rise to anticholinergic effects, such as dry
mouth, blurred vision, and constipation.
4. Which behavior displayed by a patient receiving a typical antipsychotic medication
would be assessed as displaying behaviors characteristic of tardive dyskinesia (TD)?
A. Grimacing and lip smacking
B. Falling asleep in the chair and refusing to eat lunch
C. Experiencing muscle rigidity and tremors
D. Having excessive salivation and drooling - ANSWER- ANS: A
TD manifests as abnormal movements of voluntary muscle groups after a prolonged
period of dopamine
blockade. Movements may affect any muscle group, but muscles of the face, mouth,
tongue, and digits are
commonly affected. Falling asleep is reflective of the sedative effect of these
medications. Muscle rigidity and drooling reflect EPS caused from imbalance between
dopamine and acetylcholine.
5. A nurse administers a medication that potentiates the action of GABA. Which finding
would be expected?
A. Reduced anxiety
B. Improved memory
C. More organized thinking
D. Fewer sensory perceptual alterations - ANSWER- ANS: A
Increased levels of GABA reduce anxiety, thus any potentiation of GABA action should
result in anxiety
