• Wrong document? Swap it for free
  • Written by students who passed
  • Immediately available after payment
  • Read online or as PDF
Sell
Where do you study
Your language
Document preview thumbnail
Preview 3 out of 28 pages
Exam (elaborations)

ADVANCED HESI EXIT COMPREHENSIVE EXAM . COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS RATED A+.

Document preview thumbnail
Preview 3 out of 28 pages

ADVANCED HESI EXIT COMPREHENSIVE EXAM . COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS RATED A+. The nurse is caring for a client with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) who is receiving enteral tube feedings. Which task performed by the UAP requires immediate intervention by the nurse? A. Suctions oral secretions from mouth B. Positions head of bed flat when changing sheets C. Takes temperature using the axillary method D. Keeps head of bed elevated at 30 degrees -Answer: B Details: Positioning the head of the bed flat when enteral feedings are in progress puts the client at risk for aspiration . The others are all acceptable tasks performed by the UAP (A, C, and D). When caring for a postsurgical client who has undergone multiple blood transfusions, which serum laboratory finding is of most concern to the nurse? A. Sodium level, 137 mEq/L B. Potassium level, 5.5 mEq/L C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level, 18 mg/dL D. Calcium level, 10 mEq/L -Answer: B Details: Multiple blood transfusions are a risk factor for hyperkalemia. A serum potassium level higher than 5.0 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia . The others are normal findings (A, C, and D). Which vaccination should the nurse administer to a newborn? A. Hepatitis B B. Human papilloma virus (HPV) C. Varicella D. Meningococcal vaccine -Answer: A Details: The hepatitis B vaccination should be given to all newborns before hospital discharge . HPV is not recommended until adolescence . Varicella immunization begins at 12 months . Meningococcal vaccine is administered beginning at 2 years . The nurse is caring for a client on the medical unit. Which task can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? A. Assess the need to change a central line dressing. B. Obtain a fingerstick blood glucose level. C. Answer a family member's questions about the client's plan of care. D. Teach the client side effects to report related to the current medication regimen. - CORRECT ANSWER -B Details: Obtaining a fingerstick blood glucose level is a simple treatment and is an appropriate skill for UAP to perform . (A, C, and D) are skills that cannot be delegated to UAP. The nurse is caring for a client with an ischemic stroke who has a prescription for tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) IV. Which action(s) should the nurse expect to implement? (Select all that apply.) A. Administer aspirin with tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA). B. Complete the National Institute of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS). C. Assess the client for signs of bleeding during and after the infusion. D. Start t-PA within 6 hours after the onset of stroke symptoms. E. Initiate multidisciplinary consult for potential rehabilitation. -Answer: B,C,E Details: Neurologic assessment, including the NIHSS, is indicated for the client receiving t-PA. This includes close monitoring for bleeding during and after the infusion; if bleeding or other signs of neurologic impairment occur, the infusion should be stopped (B, C, and E). Aspirin is contraindicated with t-PA because it increases the risk for bleeding . The administration of t-PA within 6 hours of symptoms is concurrent with a diagnosis of a myocardial infarction and within 4.5 hours of symptoms is concurrent for a stroke . When caring for a client in labor, which finding is most important to report to the primary health care provider? A. Maternal heart rate, 90 beats/min. B. Fetal heart rate, 100 beats/min C. Maternal blood pressure, 140/86 mm Hg D. Maternal temperature, 100.0° F -Answer: B Details: A fetal heart rate (FHR) of 100 beats/min may indicate fetal distress because the average FHR at term is 140 beats/min and the normal range is 110 to beats/min 160. The others (A, C, and D) are normal findings for a woman in labor. The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who develops respiratory distress and coughs up pink frothy sputum. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Draw arterial blood gases. B. Notify the primary health care provider. C. Position in a high Fowler's position with the legs down. D. Obtain a chest X-ray. -Answer: C Details: Positioning the patient in a high Fowler's position with dangling feet will decrease further venous return to the left ventricle . The other actions should be performed after the change in position (A, B, and D). A client who is prescribed chlorpromazine HCl (Thorazine) for schizophrenia develops rigidity, a shuffling gait, and tremors. Which action by the nurse is most important? A. Administer a dose of benztropine mesylate (Cogentin) PRN. B. Determine if the client has increased photosensitivity. C. Provide comfort measures for sore muscles. D. Assess the client for visual and auditory hallucinations. -Answer: A Details: Rigidity, shuffling gait, pill-rolling hand movements, tremors, dyskinesia, and masklike face are extrapyramidal side effects associated with Thorazine. It is most important for the nurse to administer an anticholinergic such as Cogentin to reverse these effects . The others (B, C, D) may be appropriate interventions but are not as urgent as . A nurse is interviewing a mother during a well-child visit. Which finding would alert the nurse to continue further assessment of the infant? A.Two-month-old who is unable to roll from back to abdomen B.Ten-month-old who cannot sit without support C.Nine-month-old who cries when his mother leaves the room D.Eight-month-old who has not yet begun to speak words -Answer: B Details: As a developmental milestone, infants should sit unsupported by 8 months . The milestone of rolling over is achieved at 5 to 6 months for most infants . Stranger anxiety is common from 7 to 9 months . Speaking a few words is expected at about 12 months . Which intervention should be included in the plan of care for a client admitted to the hospital with ulcerative colitis? A. Administer stool softeners. B. Place the client on fluid restriction. C. Provide a low-residue diet. D. Add a milk product to each meal. -Answer: C Details: A low-residue diet will help decrease symptoms of diarrhea, which are clinical manifestations of ulcerative colitis. (A, B, and D) are contraindicated and could worsen the condition. The nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis who is on a continuous IV heparin infusion. The activated partial prothrombin time (aPTT) is 120 seconds. Which action should the nurse take? A. Increase the rate of the heparin infusion using a nomogram. B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate and give vitamin K IM. C. Continue the heparin infusion at the current prescribed rate. D. Stop the heparin drip and prepare to administer protamine sulfate. -Answer: D Details: An aPTT more than 100 seconds is a critically high value; therefore, the heparin should be stopped. The antidote for heparin is protamine sulfate . Increasing the rate would increase the risk for hemorrhage . The infusion should be stopped, and vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin (Coumadin) . Keeping the infusion at the current rate would increase the risk for hemorrhage . While assessing a client with recurring chest pain, the unit secretary notifies the nurse that the client's health care provider is on the telephone. What action should the nurse instruct the unit secretary to implement? A. Transfer the call into the room of the client. B. Instruct the secretary to explain reason for the call. C. Ask another nurse to take the phone call. D. Ask the health care provider to see the client on the unit. -Answer: C Details: Another nurse should be asked to take the phone call , which allows the nurse to stay at the bedside to complete the assessment of the client's chest pain. (A and B) should not be done during an acute change in the client's condition. Requesting the health care provider to come to the unit is premature until the nurse completes assessment of the client's status. Which instruction(s) should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan of a male client who has had a myocardial infarction and who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin (NTG)? (Select all that apply.) A. Keep the medication in your pocket so that it can be accessed quickly. B. Call 911 if chest pain is not relieved after one nitroglycerin. C. Store the medication in its original container and protect it from light. D. Activate the emergency medical system after three doses of medication. E. Do not use within 1 hour of taking sildenafil citrate (Viagra). -Answer: B,C Details: Emergency action should be taken if chest pain is not relieved after one nitroglycerin tablet . The medication should be kept in the original container to protect from light . Keeping the medication in the shirt pocket provides an environment that is too warm . The newest guidelines recommend calling 911 after one nitroglycerin tablet if chest pain is not relieved . Nitroglycerin and other nitrates should never be taken with Viagra (E). The nurse prepares to administer 3 units of regular insulin and 20 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously to a client with an elevated blood glucose level. Which procedure is correct? Using one syringe, first insert air into the regular vial and then insert air into the NPH vial. Using one syringe, add the regular insulin into the syringe and then add the NPH insulin. Avoid combining the two insulins because incompatibility could cause an adverse reaction. Administer the regular insulin subcutaneously and then give the NPH IV to prevent a separate stick. -Answer: B Details: The regular or "clear" insulin should be withdrawn into the syringe first, followed by the NPH . Air should first be injected into the NPH vial and then air should be inserted into the regular vial . NPH and regular insulin are compatible, and combining will reduce the number of injections . The insulin is ordered subcutaneously and NPH cannot be given IV . An 8-year-old child is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) for congestive heart failure (CHF). In assessing the child, the nurse finds that her apical heart rate is 80 beats/min, she complains of being slightly nauseated, and her serum digoxin level is 1.2 ng/mL. What action should the nurse take? A. Because the child's heart rate and digoxin level are within normal range, assess for the cause of the nausea. B. Hold the next dose of digoxin until the health care provider can be notified because the serum digoxin level is elevated. C. Administer the next dose of digoxin and notify the health care provider that the child is showing signs of toxicity. D. Notify the health care provider that the child's pulse rate is below normal for her age group. -Answer: A Details: Nausea and vomiting are early signs of digoxin toxicity. However, the normal resting heart rate for a child 8 to 10 years of age is 70 to 110 beats/min and the therapeutic range of serum digoxin levels is 0.5 to 2 ng/mL. Based on the objective data, is the best of the choices provided because the serum digoxin level is within normal levels. is not warranted by the data presented. The digoxin level is within the therapeutic

Content preview

ADVANCED HESI EXIT COMPREHENSIVE
EXAM 2024-2025. COMPLETE QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS RATED A+.
The nurse is caring for a client with a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) who is receiving enteral tube
feedings. Which task performed by the UAP requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

A. Suctions oral secretions from mouth
B. Positions head of bed flat when changing sheets
C. Takes temperature using the axillary method
D. Keeps head of bed elevated at 30 degrees -Answer: B

Details:
Positioning the head of the bed flat when enteral feedings are in progress puts the client at risk for aspiration
. The others are all acceptable tasks performed by the UAP (A, C, and D).


When caring for a postsurgical client who has undergone multiple blood transfusions, which serum
laboratory finding is of most concern to the nurse?

A. Sodium level, 137 mEq/L
B. Potassium level, 5.5 mEq/L
C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level, 18 mg/dL
D. Calcium level, 10 mEq/L -Answer: B

Details:
Multiple blood transfusions are a risk factor for hyperkalemia. A serum potassium level higher than 5.0
mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia . The others are normal findings (A, C, and D).


Which vaccination should the nurse administer to a newborn?

A. Hepatitis B
B. Human papilloma virus (HPV)
C. Varicella
D. Meningococcal vaccine -Answer: A

Details:
The hepatitis B vaccination should be given to all newborns before hospital discharge . HPV is not
recommended until adolescence . Varicella immunization begins at 12 months . Meningococcal vaccine is
administered beginning at 2 years .


The nurse is caring for a client on the medical unit. Which task can be delegated to unlicensed assistive
personnel (UAP)?

A. Assess the need to change a central line dressing.
B. Obtain a fingerstick blood glucose level.
C. Answer a family member's questions about the client's plan of care.
D. Teach the client side effects to report related to the current medication regimen. - CORRECT
ANSWER -B

,Details:
Obtaining a fingerstick blood glucose level is a simple treatment and is an appropriate skill for UAP to
perform . (A, C, and D) are skills that cannot be delegated to UAP.


The nurse is caring for a client with an ischemic stroke who has a prescription for tissue plasminogen
activator (t-PA) IV. Which action(s) should the nurse expect to implement? (Select all that apply.)

A. Administer aspirin with tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA).
B. Complete the National Institute of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS).
C. Assess the client for signs of bleeding during and after the infusion.
D. Start t-PA within 6 hours after the onset of stroke symptoms.
E. Initiate multidisciplinary consult for potential rehabilitation. -Answer: B,C,E

Details:
Neurologic assessment, including the NIHSS, is indicated for the client receiving t-PA. This includes close
monitoring for bleeding during and after the infusion; if bleeding or other signs of neurologic impairment
occur, the infusion should be stopped (B, C, and E). Aspirin is contraindicated with t-PA because it
increases the risk for bleeding . The administration of t-PA within 6 hours of symptoms is concurrent with a
diagnosis of a myocardial infarction and within 4.5 hours of symptoms is concurrent for a stroke .


When caring for a client in labor, which finding is most important to report to the primary health care
provider?

A. Maternal heart rate, 90 beats/min.
B. Fetal heart rate, 100 beats/min
C. Maternal blood pressure, 140/86 mm Hg
D. Maternal temperature, 100.0° F -Answer: B

Details:
A fetal heart rate (FHR) of 100 beats/min may indicate fetal distress because the average FHR at term is
140 beats/min and the normal range is 110 to beats/min 160. The others (A, C, and D) are normal findings
for a woman in labor.


The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who develops respiratory distress and coughs up pink
frothy sputum. Which action should the nurse take first?

A. Draw arterial blood gases.
B. Notify the primary health care provider.
C. Position in a high Fowler's position with the legs down.
D. Obtain a chest X-ray. -Answer: C

Details:
Positioning the patient in a high Fowler's position with dangling feet will decrease further venous return to
the left ventricle . The other actions should be performed after the change in position (A, B, and D).

, A client who is prescribed chlorpromazine HCl (Thorazine) for schizophrenia develops rigidity, a shuffling
gait, and tremors. Which action by the nurse is most important?

A. Administer a dose of benztropine mesylate (Cogentin) PRN.
B. Determine if the client has increased photosensitivity.
C. Provide comfort measures for sore muscles.
D. Assess the client for visual and auditory hallucinations. -Answer: A

Details:
Rigidity, shuffling gait, pill-rolling hand movements, tremors, dyskinesia, and masklike face are
extrapyramidal side effects associated with Thorazine. It is most important for the nurse to administer an
anticholinergic such as Cogentin to reverse these effects . The others (B, C, D) may be appropriate
interventions but are not as urgent as .


A nurse is interviewing a mother during a well-child visit. Which finding would alert the nurse to continue
further assessment of the infant?

A.Two-month-old who is unable to roll from back to abdomen
B.Ten-month-old who cannot sit without support
C.Nine-month-old who cries when his mother leaves the room
D.Eight-month-old who has not yet begun to speak words -Answer: B

Details:
As a developmental milestone, infants should sit unsupported by 8 months . The milestone of rolling over is
achieved at 5 to 6 months for most infants . Stranger anxiety is common from 7 to 9 months . Speaking a
few words is expected at about 12 months .

Which intervention should be included in the plan of care for a client admitted to the hospital with ulcerative
colitis?

A. Administer stool softeners.
B. Place the client on fluid restriction.
C. Provide a low-residue diet.
D. Add a milk product to each meal. -Answer: C

Details:
A low-residue diet will help decrease symptoms of diarrhea, which are clinical manifestations of ulcerative
colitis. (A, B, and D) are contraindicated and could worsen the condition.


The nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis who is on a continuous IV heparin infusion. The
activated partial prothrombin time (aPTT) is 120 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?

A. Increase the rate of the heparin infusion using a nomogram.
B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate and give vitamin K IM.
C. Continue the heparin infusion at the current prescribed rate.
D. Stop the heparin drip and prepare to administer protamine sulfate. -Answer: D

Details:
An aPTT more than 100 seconds is a critically high value; therefore, the heparin should be stopped. The
antidote for heparin is protamine sulfate . Increasing the rate would increase the risk for hemorrhage . The
infusion should be stopped, and vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin (Coumadin) . Keeping the infusion at
the current rate would increase the risk for hemorrhage .

Document information

Uploaded on
September 15, 2024
Number of pages
28
Written in
2024/2025
Type
Exam (elaborations)
Contains
Questions & answers
$13.99

Wrong document? Swap it for free Within 14 days of purchase and before downloading, you can choose a different document. You can simply spend the amount again.
Written by students who passed
Immediately available after payment
Read online or as PDF

Seller avatar
Reputation scores are based on the amount of documents a seller has sold for a fee and the reviews they have received for those documents. There are three levels: Bronze, Silver and Gold. The better the reputation, the more your can rely on the quality of the sellers work.
Nurslink
3.5
(27)
Sold
237
Followers
72
Items
1714
Last sold
19 hours ago



Why students choose Stuvia

Created by fellow students, verified by reviews

Quality you can trust: written by students who passed their tests and reviewed by others who've used these notes.

Didn't get what you expected? Choose another document

No worries! You can instantly pick a different document that better fits what you're looking for.

Pay as you like, start learning right away

No subscription, no commitments. Pay the way you're used to via credit card and download your PDF document instantly.

Student with book image

“Bought, downloaded, and aced it. It really can be that simple.”

Alisha Student

Working on your references?

Create accurate citations in APA, MLA and Harvard with our free citation generator.

Working on your references?

Frequently asked questions