OB Exam 1 Questions With Complete Solutions
The nurse is instructing a client how to perform a testicular self-
examination (TSE). The nurse should explain that which is the
best time to perform this exam?
1. After a shower or bath
2. While standing to void
3. After having a bowel movement
4. While lying in bed before arising Correct Answers After a
...... ......
shower or bath
Rationale:
The nurse needs to teach the client how to perform a TSE. The
nurse should instruct the client to perform the exam on the same
day each month. The nurse should also instruct the client that the
best time to perform a TSE is after a shower or bath when the
hands are warm and soapy and the scrotum is warm. Palpation is
easier and the client will be better able to identify any
abnormalities. The client would stand to perform the exam, but
it would be difficult to perform the exam while voiding. Having
a bowel movement is unrelated to performing a TSE.
A 55-year-old male client confides in the nurse that he is
concerned about his sexual function. What is the nurse's best
response?
,1. "How often do you have sexual relations?"
2. "Please share with me more about your concerns."
3. "You are still young and have nothing to be concerned
about."
4. "You should not have a decline in testosterone until you are
in your 80s." Correct Answers Please share with me more about
...... ......
your concerns.
The clinic nurse is performing a psychosocial assessment of a
client who has been told that she is pregnant. Which assessment
findings indicate to the nurse that the client is at risk for
contracting human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? Select all
that apply.
1. The client has a history of intravenous drug use.
2. The client has a significant other who is heterosexual.
3. The client has a history of sexually transmitted infections.
4. The client has had one sexual partner for the past 10 years.
5. The client has a previous history of gestational diabetes
mellitus. Correct Answers The client has a history of intravenous
...... ......
drug use.
The client has a history of sexually transmitted infections.
Rationale:
,HIV is transmitted by intimate sexual contact and the exchange
of body fluids, exposure to infected blood, and passage from an
infected woman to her fetus. Clients who fall into the high-risk
category for HIV infection include individuals who have used
intravenous drugs, individuals who experience persistent and
recurrent sexually transmitted infections, and individuals who
have a history of multiple sexual partners. Gestational diabetes
mellitus does not predispose the client to HIV. A client with a
heterosexual partner, particularly a client who has had only one
sexual partner in 10 years, does not have a high risk for
contracting HIV.
A male client has a tentative diagnosis of urethritis. The nurse
should assess the client for which manifestation of the disorder?
1. Hematuria and pyuria
2. Dysuria and proteinuria
3. Hematuria and urgency
4. Dysuria and penile discharge Correct Answers Dysuria and
...... ......
penile discharge
Rationale:
Urethritis in the male client often results from chlamydial
infection and is characterized by dysuria, which is accompanied
by a clear to mucopurulent discharge. Because this disorder
often coexists with gonorrhea, diagnostic tests are done for both
and include culture and rapid assays. Hematuria is not associated
, with urethritis. Proteinuria is associated with kidney
dysfunction.
A client has been prescribed pindolol for hypertension. The
nurse provides anticipatory guidance, knowing that which
common side effect of this medication may decrease client
compliance?
1. Impotence
2. Mood Swings
3. Increased appetite
4. Difficulty swallowing Correct Answers Impotence
...... .... ..
Rationale:
A common side effect of beta-adrenergic blocking agents such
as pindolol is impotence. Other common side effects include
fatigue and weakness. Central nervous system side effects are
rarer and include mental status changes, nervousness,
depression, and insomnia. Mood swings, increased appetite, and
difficulty swallowing are not side effects of this medication.
A 33-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital with a
tentative diagnosis of Graves' disease. Which symptom related
to the menstrual cycle would the client be most likely to report
during the initial assessment?
1. Amenorrhea
The nurse is instructing a client how to perform a testicular self-
examination (TSE). The nurse should explain that which is the
best time to perform this exam?
1. After a shower or bath
2. While standing to void
3. After having a bowel movement
4. While lying in bed before arising Correct Answers After a
...... ......
shower or bath
Rationale:
The nurse needs to teach the client how to perform a TSE. The
nurse should instruct the client to perform the exam on the same
day each month. The nurse should also instruct the client that the
best time to perform a TSE is after a shower or bath when the
hands are warm and soapy and the scrotum is warm. Palpation is
easier and the client will be better able to identify any
abnormalities. The client would stand to perform the exam, but
it would be difficult to perform the exam while voiding. Having
a bowel movement is unrelated to performing a TSE.
A 55-year-old male client confides in the nurse that he is
concerned about his sexual function. What is the nurse's best
response?
,1. "How often do you have sexual relations?"
2. "Please share with me more about your concerns."
3. "You are still young and have nothing to be concerned
about."
4. "You should not have a decline in testosterone until you are
in your 80s." Correct Answers Please share with me more about
...... ......
your concerns.
The clinic nurse is performing a psychosocial assessment of a
client who has been told that she is pregnant. Which assessment
findings indicate to the nurse that the client is at risk for
contracting human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? Select all
that apply.
1. The client has a history of intravenous drug use.
2. The client has a significant other who is heterosexual.
3. The client has a history of sexually transmitted infections.
4. The client has had one sexual partner for the past 10 years.
5. The client has a previous history of gestational diabetes
mellitus. Correct Answers The client has a history of intravenous
...... ......
drug use.
The client has a history of sexually transmitted infections.
Rationale:
,HIV is transmitted by intimate sexual contact and the exchange
of body fluids, exposure to infected blood, and passage from an
infected woman to her fetus. Clients who fall into the high-risk
category for HIV infection include individuals who have used
intravenous drugs, individuals who experience persistent and
recurrent sexually transmitted infections, and individuals who
have a history of multiple sexual partners. Gestational diabetes
mellitus does not predispose the client to HIV. A client with a
heterosexual partner, particularly a client who has had only one
sexual partner in 10 years, does not have a high risk for
contracting HIV.
A male client has a tentative diagnosis of urethritis. The nurse
should assess the client for which manifestation of the disorder?
1. Hematuria and pyuria
2. Dysuria and proteinuria
3. Hematuria and urgency
4. Dysuria and penile discharge Correct Answers Dysuria and
...... ......
penile discharge
Rationale:
Urethritis in the male client often results from chlamydial
infection and is characterized by dysuria, which is accompanied
by a clear to mucopurulent discharge. Because this disorder
often coexists with gonorrhea, diagnostic tests are done for both
and include culture and rapid assays. Hematuria is not associated
, with urethritis. Proteinuria is associated with kidney
dysfunction.
A client has been prescribed pindolol for hypertension. The
nurse provides anticipatory guidance, knowing that which
common side effect of this medication may decrease client
compliance?
1. Impotence
2. Mood Swings
3. Increased appetite
4. Difficulty swallowing Correct Answers Impotence
...... .... ..
Rationale:
A common side effect of beta-adrenergic blocking agents such
as pindolol is impotence. Other common side effects include
fatigue and weakness. Central nervous system side effects are
rarer and include mental status changes, nervousness,
depression, and insomnia. Mood swings, increased appetite, and
difficulty swallowing are not side effects of this medication.
A 33-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital with a
tentative diagnosis of Graves' disease. Which symptom related
to the menstrual cycle would the client be most likely to report
during the initial assessment?
1. Amenorrhea
