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POST-PARTUM practice questions with 100% correct answers

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POST-PARTUM practice questions with 100% correct answers

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Nursing nclex
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Uploaded on
August 15, 2024
Number of pages
45
Written in
2024/2025
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©PREP4EXAMS@2024/2025 [ REAL-EXAM-DUMPS] Monday, August 5, 2024 1: 54 PM


WEST VIRGINIA UNIVERSIRTY-WV26506

POST-PARTUM practice questions with 100% correct answers


A new mother asks the nurse when the "soft spot" on her son's head will go away. The

nurse's answer is based on the knowledge that the anterior fontanel closes after birth by

_____ months.


a. 2


b. 8


c. 12


d. 18 - ✔️✔️ANS: D


The larger of the two fontanels, the anterior fontanel, closes by 18 months after birth.


While providing care in an obstetric setting, the nurse should understand that

postpartum care of the woman with cardiac disease:


a. Is the same as that for any pregnant woman.


b. Includes rest, stool softeners, and monitoring of the effect of activity.


c. Includes ambulating frequently, alternating with active range of motion.


d. Includes limiting visits with the infant to once per day. - ✔️✔️ANS: B




1

,©PREP4EXAMS@2024/2025 [ REAL-EXAM-DUMPS] Monday, August 5, 2024 1: 54 PM


WEST VIRGINIA UNIVERSIRTY-WV26506
Bed rest may be ordered, with or without bathroom privileges. Bowel movements

without stress or strain for the woman are promoted with stool softeners, diet, and fluid.

Care of the woman with cardiac disease in the postpartum period is tailored to the

woman's functional capacity. The woman will be on bed rest to conserve energy and

reduce the strain on the heart. Although the woman may need help caring for the infant,

breastfeeding and infant visits are not contraindicated.


A woman with asthma is experiencing a postpartum hemorrhage. Which drug would

NOT be used to treat her bleeding because it may exacerbate her asthma?


a. Pitocin


b. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)


c. Hemabate


d. Fentanyl - ✔️✔️ANS: C


Prostaglandin derivatives should not be used to treat women with asthma, because they

may exacerbate symptoms. Pitocin would be the drug of choice to treat this woman's

bleeding because it would not exacerbate her asthma. NSAIDs are not used to treat

bleeding. Fentanyl is used to treat pain, not bleeding.


In caring for an immediate postpartum client, you note petechiae and oozing from her IV

site. You would monitor her closely for the clotting disorder:


a. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)




2

,©PREP4EXAMS@2024/2025 [ REAL-EXAM-DUMPS] Monday, August 5, 2024 1: 54 PM


WEST VIRGINIA UNIVERSIRTY-WV26506
b. Amniotic fluid embolism (AFE)


c. Hemorrhage


d. HELLP syndrome - ✔️✔️ANS: A


The diagnosis of DIC is made according to clinical findings and laboratory markers.

Physical examination reveals unusual bleeding. Petechiae may appear around a blood

pressure cuff on the woman's arm. Excessive bleeding may occur from the site of a

slight trauma such as venipuncture sites. These symptoms are not associated with AFE,

nor is AFE a bleeding disorder. Hemorrhage occurs for a variety of reasons in the

postpartum client. These symptoms are associated with DIC. Hemorrhage would be a

finding associated with DIC and is not a clotting disorder in and of itself. HELLP is not a

clotting disorder, but it may contribute to the clotting disorder DIC.


Your client has been on magnesium sulfate for 20 hours for treatment of preeclampsia.

She just delivered a viable infant girl 30 minutes ago. What uterine findings would you

expect to observe/assess in this client?


a. Absence of uterine bleeding in the postpartum period


b. A fundus firm below the level of the umbilicus


c. Scant lochia flow


d. A boggy uterus with heavy lochia flow - ✔️✔️ANS: D




3

, ©PREP4EXAMS@2024/2025 [ REAL-EXAM-DUMPS] Monday, August 5, 2024 1: 54 PM


WEST VIRGINIA UNIVERSIRTY-WV26506
Because of the tocolytic effects of magnesium sulfate, this client most likely would have

a boggy uterus with increased amounts of bleeding and a heavy lochia flow in the

postpartum period.


The perinatal nurse is giving discharge instructions to a woman, status postsuction

curettage secondary to a hydatidiform mole. The woman asks why she must take oral

contraceptives for the next 12 months. The best response from the nurse would be:


a. "If you get pregnant within 1 year, the chance of a successful pregnancy is very

small. Therefore, if you desire a future pregnancy, it would be better for you to use the

most reliable method of contraception available."


b. "The major risk to you after a molar pregnancy is a type of cancer that can be

diagnosed only by measuring the same hormone that your body produces during

pregnancy. If you were to get pregnant, it would make the diagnosis of this cancer more

difficult."


c. "If you can avoid a pregnancy for the next year, the chance of developing a second

molar pregnancy is rare. Therefore, to improve your chance of a successful pregnancy,

it is better not to get preg - ✔️✔️ANS: B


This is an accurate statement. -human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels will be

drawn for 1 year to ensure that the mole is completely gone. There is an increased

chance of developing choriocarcinoma after the development of a hydatidiform mole.

The goal is to achieve a "zero" hCG level. If the woman were to become pregnant, it




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