ASCP CMLA test questions and answers

ASCP CMLA test questions and answers Receiving cannot accept a specimen unless it has: A. Correct legible label B. An uncontaminated, signed requisition with billing information C. An intact container with correct media D. All of the above A laboratory refrigerator used to store volatile, flammable liquids can hold: A. 120 gallons of class 1,2,3A liquids B. 180 gallons of class 1,2,3A liquids C. 200 gallons of class 1,2,3A liquids D. 50 gallons of class 1,2,3A liquids Disease incidence predicts: A. How probable it is a patient will develop a disease and its etiology B. How likely a test result is to be right or wrong, given certain variables C. How likely the patient with a negative test really does not have the condition D. How likely the patient with a positive test result really has the condition Beer's Law (Spectrophotometry) A. Means a transparent sample transmits 0% light B. Only applies if absorbance is between 0.1 and 1.0 C. Means an opaque sample transmits 100% light D. Uses a visible spectrum from 340 nm to 500 nm Naming bacteria by looking at their size and shape under the microscope, and the colony morphology on media is: A. Serology/Immunology B. Toxicology C. Cytology D. Endocrinology A hemoglobin electrophoresis result of adult hemoglobin (HbA) or HbA2 indicated the patient has: A. Sickle cell anemia B. Fetal hemoglobin C. Normal hemoglobin D. Hemolytic anemia The recall rate is also known as the: A. Sensitivity B. Specificity C. Aliquot D. Circadian rhythm Biochemistry usually requires: A. lavender, light blue, and black blood collection tubes B. Red, pink, and yellow blood collection tubes C. Green, gray, and marbled serum separator tube (SST) D. Navy, purple, and brown blood collection tubes A normal kidney function study shows a: A. BUN to creatine ratio between 15:1 and 20:1 B. Alkaline phosphatase 30 to 85 international milliunits/ML C. Serum aspartate aminotransferase 5 to 40 international units/L D. Amylase 56 to 190 international units/L A newborns jaundice could be caused by: A. Erythroblastosis fetalis B. Kernicterus C. Physiologic jaundice from poor fluid intake D. All of the above Lipids from carbohydrate and alcohol sources are: A. Anions B. Triglycerides C. Cholesterol D. Eluent When serum protein indicates disease, the doctor usually follows up with: A. Total protein, albumin, and globulin B. Ascites C. Protein electrophoresis D. Bilirubin Elevated creatine phosphokinase (CPK) could mean myocardial infraction but could also mean: A. Alcoholism, hypothyroidism, cardioversion, or B. Aspirin, burns, warfarin, or sickle cell anemia C. Lung disease or congestive heart failure D. Crushing injury, bowel function, or opiate use A patient whose cortisol level is high at both 8am and 4pm likely has: A. Addison's disease B. Decreased sodium in blood is: A. Hypermatremia, often from diabetes, burns, or Cashing syndrome B. Hyponatremia, often from vomiting and diarrhea, or addisons disease. C. Hyperkalemia, often from acidosis, spironolactone, or kidney failure. D. Hypokalemia, often from alkalosis, stomach cancer, or eating too much licorice CPK in a patient with myocardial infraction witl: A. Rise 6 hours after heart attack, peak in 18 hours, and return to baseline in 3 days B. Rise 6 to 10 hours after heart attack, peak at 12 to 48 hours, and return in baeline in 4 days C. Rise 24 to 72 hours after heart attack, peak in 4 days, and return to baseline in 14 days D. Cause a corresponding rise in alpha fetoprotein The liver destroys old blood cells at the end of their lifespan of: A. 120 days B. 30 days C. 1 week D. 90 days An erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures how blood cells with anticoagulant aggregate in a westergren or wintrobe tube in 1 hour because of changes in plasma proteins, which is known as: A. Retic count B Serendipity C. Fibrinolysis D. Rouleaux formation If the doctor suspects the patient has Hodgkin disease, then the correct state for the smear to: A. Periodic acid Schiff (PAS) B. Sudan black B (SBB) C. Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) D. Lactophenol cotton blue (LPCB) A battlement scan is preferable to a wedge scan for studying bone marrow because: A. Battlement technique distributes cells evenly across the slide. B. Lymphocytes concentrate in the feather C. Wedge technique causes leukocytes to pool in different sections of the slide D. Both a and c Most coagulation (clotting) disorders are due to: A. Phase 1 problems B. Factor VIII deficiency C. Fibrinolysis D. Factor III distress call from the injury site If the patient's PT and PTT are longer than 70 seconds, then check if___ caused a false result: A. Ferritin B. Lupus inhibitory antibody (LA) C. Platelet antibody D. Intrinsic factor Confirm a fungal infection found through microscopy with a: A. Latex serology for cryptococcal antigen B. Fungal serology titer of more than 1:32 that increases x4 or more 3 weeks later C. Complement fixation for coccidiomycosis and hastoplasmosis D. Immunoediffusions for blastomycosis Two modern flocculation tests that replace the older Venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL) test for syphilis screening are: A. Plasmacrit test (PLT) and rapdid plasma region (RPR) test B. Fluorescent treponernal antibody absorptions and enzyme linked immunoassay (ELISA) To make a dilution of 1/2 or 1:2 A. Dilute 1/2 ml of serum with 2 ml of saline B. Dilute 1 ml of serum with 2 mL of saline C. Test undiluted serum for antibody/antigen reaction against a control D. Dilute 1 mL of serum with 1 mL of saline A monosot test uses ingredients from: A. guinea pig, cow, and horse B. Sheep, pig, horse C. Dog, sheep, and rabbit D. Fish, cat, and ferret A prozone phenomenon occurs when performing an antibody titer on a patient with: A. Epstein Barr virus (HBV) B. Reynaud disease C. Both syphilis and HPV D. Immunoglobulin G antibody (IgG) An Rh- mother who is pregnant with the child of an Rh+ father needs Rh immunoglobin (RhoGam) A. even if the pregnancy ends in miscarriage or abortion B. At 26 to 28 weeks of pregnancy and again within 72 hours after her delivery. C. During her labor D. Both a and b If your patient has a mild transfusion reaction: A. Type O blood has: A. B antigen and anti A antibody B. A antigen and anti-B antibody C. No A or B antigens and both Anti A and anti B antibodies D. Both A and B antigens and no anti A or anti B antibodies Choose the top priority transfusion patient from the list below: A. Cardiac surgery patient who lost more than 1200 mL of blood B. Trauma patient with a hemoglobin of 5 g/dL C. Pernicious anemia patient D. Hemophiliac boy at regular clinic visit Reject a transfusion request when: A. Recipient blood specimen is hemolyzed B. The patient armband does not have a unique identifier C. Donor blood is lipemic, clotted, or contains foreign objects D. All of the above To diagnose a urinary tract infection correctly, the microbiology lab requires a: A. Midstream urine collection B. Witnessed urine collection C. 24 hour urine collection D. Random urine collection When assisting the doctor with cerebrospinal fluid collection, you need 4 tubes for: A. Cell count, glucose, and protein, gram stain and culture, virology/mycology/cytology B. Immunoelectrophoresis C. Fungus, oncology, and SMA-12 D. Neutrophilia, lymphocytophilia, glutamine, and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) Fusobacteria cause: A. Botulism and Listeria B. Lyme disease and Helicobacter pylori stomach ulcers C. Pyorrhea and Lemierre syndrome D. Chlamydia genital infections and pneumonia The type of mediarequired to incubate a TB culture correctly is: A. Tinsdale B. Sleep blood agar C. Modified Wadowsky Yee (WMY) D. Lowenstein jensen egg (LJ) To find parasites under the microscope, set the magnification to: A. 40X B. 10X C. 400X D. 1000X Identify the parasite that must be reported to Public Health authorities: A. Crypto (Crypto B. Hookworms (Ascylossoma C. Tapeworms D. Pinworm Public health requires you to keep positive parasitology samples preserved for: A. The patient's lifetime B. One year C. Ten years D. One month Shine a Wood's light on the skin • coral red color = bacterial • blue/green color = fungal Shine a woods lamp on the patients skin to help you collect: A. Malaria specimens B. Public health specimens C. Toxicology specimens D. Mycology specimens Identify the positive dipstick test that would indicate an E.Coli infection: A. Leukocytes B. Proteins C. Ketones D. Nitrites A pregnancy test may be ordered for a man with: A. testicular cancer B. prostatitis C. Cryptorchidism D. Peyrove disease Normal urinary output for a 24 hour urine test is: A 4 quarts B 150 to 500 mL C 30 liters D 750 to 2000 mL