PAEA GENERAL SURGERY EOR EXAM LATEST 2024 ACTUAL EXAM 300+ QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS (GRADED A+)

PAEA GENERAL SURGERY EOR EXAM LATEST 2024 ACTUAL EXAM 300+ QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS (GRADED A+) What is the most appropriate intervention for a stage I testicular seminoma? - ANSWER-Orchiectomy and radiation EXPLANATION Inguinal orchiectomy followed by retroperitoneal radiation therapy cures about 98% of patients with stage I seminoma. Which beta-adrenergic blocking agent has cardioselectivity for primarily blocking beta-1 receptors? - ANSWER-Metoprolol (Lopressor) EXPLANATION Metoprolol is selective for beta-1 antagonists A 55-year-old male presents complaining of episodic substernal chest pain that occurs especially during strenuous exercise. Suspecting coronary artery disease (CAD), an exercise stress test is ordered. The test is considered to be abnormal if which of the following occurs? A) Systolic blood pressure increases during exercise 2 B) The heart rate reaches maximal value during exercise C) Random premature ventricular beats occur at peak exercise D) A 2 mm ST-segment depression is seen on the ECG at peak exercise - ANSWER-D) A 2 mm ST-segment depression is seen on the ECG at peak exercise EXPLANATION A) An increase in systolic blood pressure is an expected normal response during this test. B) Heart rate should reach maximal value during exercise. C) Random premature ventricular beats are not uncommon during peak exercise and do not indicate CAD. D) A 2 mm ST-segment depression is suggestive of cardiac ischemia and is considered to be an abnormal finding The treatment of choice for a patient with WPW (Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome) who has recurrent episodes of supraventricular tachycardia is - ANSWER-Radiofrequency ablation of bypass tracts EXPLANATION Catheter ablation of bypass tracts is possible in more than 90% of patients and is the treatment of choice in patients with symptomatic arrhythmias. It is safer, more cost-effective, and just as successful as surgery. 3 A 60 year-old female presents for pre-op evaluation for surgical treatment of a tri-malleolar fracture of the left ankle. Which of the following puts her at an increased risk for infection post-surgery? A) Recent URI B) Diabetes mellitus C) Heart murmur D) Swelling of the ankle - ANSWER-B) Diabetes mellitus EXPLANATION Diabetes mellitus puts her at risk for infection post surgery. A patient with renal artery stenosis is unresponsive to medical therapy. Which of the following is the next most appropriate intervention? A) Stenting of the renal artery B) Nephrectomy C) Radioactive iodine D) Lifestyle modification - ANSWER-A) Stenting of the renal artery EXPLANATION Stenting of the renal artery will dilated the narrowed area interfering with blood supply to the kidney.