WGU D027 Course Material Questions With Answers All Correct A+ Score.

Which of the following is not a cellular function? - correct answer Combustion - All living cells must absorb and metabolize sources of energy, excrete waste and by-products of those processes, and reproduce to continue offspring. Pyrotechnic processes (i.e. combustion) are generally metaphorical. What are mitochondria responsible for? - correct answer Energy production - Mitochondria are the energy production organelles of the cell responsible for the major metabolic processes of creating units of energy (e.g., ATP). Which if the following can cause edema? - correct answer Increased lymphatic pressure - Decreased vascular and lymphatic pressure does not generally result in the movement and accumulation of fluid into extravascular spaces. Increased plasma pressure in the vascular results in hypertension, while increased lymphatic pressure will readily result in the pooling of lymphatic drainage into third spaces (i.e. edema). Which of the following best describes the result of cellular reproduction? - correct answer Two diploid cells, called daughter cells, are produced - The resultant offspring of cellular reproduction is the creation of two daughter cells after the completion of mitosis or meiosis. Interphase is the longest period that a cell spends its life cycle and is the preparatory stage before cellular reproduction. Anaphase is the separation of genetic materials to the opposing centromeres of the cell, followed by telophase. What indicates hypokalemia? - correct answer Serum K decreases to less than 3.5 - Normal serum potassium (K), also known as eukalemia, is generally 3.5-5.5 mEq/L, with some variations of +/- 0.1-0.3 mEq/L depending on the laboratory testing, age, and other potential patient-specific conditions and variations. Alterations in fluid volume or the administration of a supplement alone do not necessarily contribute to the development of hypokalemia. What is an example of both hyperplasia and hypertrophy? - correct answer Uterine enlargement due to pregnancy - Hyperplasia is the increase in the number of cells of an organ or tissue, while hypertrophy is the enlargement of the cells of a given organ or tissue without a change in the number of cells. Muscle cells grow and enlarge (hypertrophy) in response to increased work or stress from exercise or increased cardiovascular pressures. When a liver is damaged or part of it is removed, it is the one internal solid organ capable of regeneration to repair itself creating more cells (hyperplasia). During pregnancy, the uterus must both grow to create more cells and enlarge those existing cells in preparation for the support of a fetus. What regulates the sodium balance? - correct answer Aldosterone - Aldosterone is a regulatory hormone produced by the adrenal glands to affect the kidneys' regulation of sodium, potassium, and water excretion. What is the alteration if the extracellular fluid volume is less than normal? - correct answer Hypotonic - In hypotonic states, the cell size is increased as a result of water moving from the extracellular fluid (ECF) into the cell to increase intracellular fluid. Iso- or normotonic states are a balanced state between intra- and extracellular fluid volumes. Hypertonic states cause water to shift out of the cell to increase the ECF above normal. When in excess, what do buffers absorb? - correct answer Hydrogen - Excesses of acid or base, H+ or hydroxyl ion (OH−), are absorbed for the purpose of maintaining pH homeostasis (pH of 7.38-7.42) Which of the following would a patient with metabolic acidosis have? - correct answer pH below 7.35; Bicarbonate level below 22 mEq/L - The diagnosis of metabolic acidosis requires that the testing of arterial blood finds that the pH is less than 7.35 and the bicarbonate level is less than 22 mEq/L. What is the process by which RNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides? - correct answer Translation - Translation refers to this process. Transcription is another process in which RNA is synthesized. Mutation means genetic material has been modified through inheritance. Creation is a term that does not apply in this context. What is the recurrence rate for autosomal dominant disease? - correct answer 50% - For a couple in which one or both partners are affected by the disease, the chance of each child being heterozygous affected is 50%. Which of the following statements is true about autosomal recessive disease? - correct answer It affects both men and women equally - A criterion for recognizing the inheritance of an autosomal recessive disease is that men and women will be affected by it in equal measure. What is the proportion of the population affected by a disease at the specific point in time? - correct answer Prevalence rate - Incidence rate refers to how many new cases there are of a disease within a period of time divided by the number of the population's individuals. The prevalence rate is affected by the incidence rate and how long the affected patients survive. Risk factor is anything that could lead to disease. Relative risk is the measure of a risk factor effect. Which of the following should be completed when a disease is multifactorial but has a larger genetic component? - correct answer Get a thorough family history - Environment and lifestyle choices may influence a disease, but diseases such as breast cancer are hereditary, so the family history should be reviewed. Which action is the purpose of the inflammatory process? - correct answer To destroy foreign, invasive microorganisms - The general purpose of inflammation is to initiate the destruction of foreign or invasive organisms. As a secondary effect, it increases the healing and immune response processes of the body. What causes edema that occurs during the inflammatory process? - correct answer Increased vascular permeability - Increased pressure in the vasculature secondary to the vasodilatory effects of inflammation will result in the leakage of fluid into third spaces (i.e., edema). Previousquestion In what structure do B lymphocytes mature and become B cells? - correct answer Bone marrow - The bone marrow is where immature immune cells, such as B and T lymphocytes, reside to mature into B cells. After this maturation process, these cells migrate to other organ sites such as the thyroid, spleen, and thymus to enter their final stages of differentiation and development. Which type of immunity occurs when antibodies are transferred from donor to recipient? - correct answer Passive acquired immunity - Active immune processes are the self-originating processes of the immune system that occur from (acquired) or without (innate) prior exogenous simulation or exposure to foreign antigens. Passive immunity is stabilized. Existing immune responses that are present with or without simulation can arise or be created from oneself (innate) or acquired from an outside source (e.g. donor antibodies). What does T-cell activity cause in older adults? - correct answer Increased susceptibility for infection - As the human body ages, the immune system's effectiveness to coordinate responses to pathogens and other foreign antigens wanes and the risk for disease increases. What is a dermatitis caused by prolonged exposure to chemicals such as acids or soaps also known as? - correct answer Irritant contact dermatitis - Prolonged, superficial skin exposure to foreign irritants (e.g., acids or soaps) is a manifestation of an innate, local inflammatory response. The conditions of allergic, stasis, and atopic dermatitis involve more systemic processes of the immune system and vasculature. Which of the following is a self-limiting disease associated with Herpes type viruses and a herald patch? - correct answer Pityriasis rosea - Lichen planus, acne vulgaris, and erythema multiforme are conditions generally associated with or caused by autoimmune dysregulation, bacteria, and varieties of foreign antigen (medications, virus, etc.). Pityriasis rosea in particular is associated with and triggered by Herpes viruses, manifesting itself as a herald patch.