NAVLE Prep Exam With Complete Solutions

NAVLE Prep Exam With Complete Solutions Atracurium: non-depolorizing neuromuscular blocker (others include pancuronium, d-tubocurarine and succinylcholine) Fentanyl is an opioid Naloxone is an opioid antagonist Edrophonium and neostigimine are cholinesterase inhibitors used to reverse neuromuscular blockers Which of these drugs is a neuromuscular blocker when given to a dog? A) Naloxone B) Edrophonium C) Atracurium D) Neostigimine E) Fentanyl Photosensitization: photodynamic agents have accumulated making the skin hyper-reactive to UV light (usually plant-derived or secondary to liver failure) Several 16-20 month old Holstein dairy heifers who have been out in pasture have developed large areas of skin sloughing, which appears mainly the white unpigmented areas. Based on observation, what is the best diagnosis? A) MCF B) Photosensitization C) Insect hypersensitivity D) Allergic dermatitis E) Ordinary sunburn Vesicular stomatitis: Affects horses/cows/pigs with similar CS. Virus with high morbidity and low mortality that appears about every 7-10yrs in SW US. Yearly outbreaks in southern Mexico and Northers SA. Black flies and midges are vectors. Affected premises should be quarantined You are called one hot summer day to see a group of horses in New Mexico which are slobbering and not eating their hay. 3/20 seem visibly affected. On physical exam of the first one, you find a fever of 104F (40C) and obvious oral ulcers (image), mainly on the tongue. What is your tentative diagnosis? A) FMD B) Vesicular stomatitis C) Glanders D) Bovine papular stomatitis E) AHS Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP): releases VWB factors, which help with clotting. Given history, very likely that this dog has VWB disease = inability to naturally form a clot (life-threatening in sx) A whole blood transfusion does not provide an adequate source of von Willebrand factor but may be necessary if the patient's bleeding cannot be controlled despite appropriate pre-operative measures. 1,25 dihydrocholecalciferol is the active form of vitamin D which aids intestinal resorption of calcium. The BMBT does not assess factors 2, 7, 9, or 10 and therefore vitamin K is not indicated. 1y/o FS Doberman Pinscher has presented after being HBC. Initial chest rads show mild contusions, and the patient appears to be otherwise stable. A right mid-shaft long oblique femoral fracture has been identified. Routine pre-operative blood works is unremarkable. A buccal mucosal bleeding test is elevated to 6min. What will you administer prior to surgery? A) Whole blood transfusion B) Desmopressin acetate C) Vitamin K D) 1.25 dihydrocholecalciferol Disruption of function of the plumage : Feathers serve a critical waterproofing and insulatory function which is disrupted by oil and can rapidly result in hypothermia. Other concerns for oiled birds include GI irritation from ingestion of oil during preening, hemolytic anemia, and pneumonia due to inhalation of oil. Treatments include heat, supportive care, and activated charcoal. Once stabilized, frequent high pressure, warm, mild detergent baths and clean warm water rinses until water beads freely off of the feathers is important. Birds should be placed in warm air flow until dry and they should be maintained on self- skimming ponds for several days after washing to ensure full waterproofing. This goose was found weak on the shore of a local pond where oil had been dumped. The goose was covered in oil, dehydrated and weak but responsive. Which of the following is an important acute clinical effect of oil on affected birds? A) Lead toxicity B) Nephrotoxicity C) Contact dermatitis D) Disruption of function of plumage E) Hepatotoxicity Streptococcus suis: Streptococcus suis and H. parasuis both cause polyarthritis, polyserositis, fever, and pneumonia in young piglets up to several weeks of age. Both can cause fibrinopurulent inflammation as well as meningitis and convulsions. Erysipelas and M. hyosynoviae typically occur in grower and finisher pigs and do not result in pneumonia. Diamond-shaped skin lesions (thus the name "diamond skin disease") are pathognomonic for Erysipelas. Fusobacterium necrophorum causes lameness via footrot or laminitis. Which infectious agent causes the clinical presentation of pigs most similar to Haemophilus parsuis (Glasser's)? A) Mycoplasma hyosynoviae B) Fusobacterium encrophorum C) Streptococcus suis D) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae 7-10 days: Canine parvovirus mainly affects puppies and young dogs less than a year of age. Transmission of the virus is through contact with infected feces and fomites such as hands, toys, the dog's hair coat. The virus is very resilient in the environment and is resistant to many types of disinfectants. It replicates in the crypt epithelium of the gut and causes epithelial necrosis and hemorrhagic diarrhea. The virus can also affect the heart of young puppies, causing myocarditis. This occurs less commonly now since most bitches are immunized against the virus, which allows for maternal antibodies to protect young puppies from this form of the disease. Hits hard and hits FAST Once infected, for what period of time is canine parvovirus usually shed? A) 7-10 days B) 3-4 weeks C) 2-3 months D) 5-6 months left lung: On a right lateral radiograph, the right side is down. In this situation, the right lung lobes are compressed and the left lung lobes inflated, accentuating a mass in the left lung. On a left lateral radiograph, the left lobes are compressed and a mass in the left lung can be concealed due to compression of the lung surrounding the mass. If a mass appears in the lungs on a right lateral radiograph but not on a left lateral radiograph, where is the mass located? A) Body wall B) Mediastinum C) Right lung D) Left lung CN VII: This is the facial nerve which is responsible for motor of the facial muscles as well as sensation in the ear and lacrimation. CN V is mostly responsible for sensation. CN III is the oculomotor nerve and serves in movement of the eye. CN VI is also involved in movement of the eye. A 10y/o male castrated GSD presents for an acute onset of ptosis, drooping of the lip, and drooping of the cheek all on the left side. What nerve has been damaged? A) CN V B) CN III C) CN VII D) CN VI 60 ml: In order to raise the PCV 1% you will need to give 1ml/kg of packed red blood cells. So it takes 6mls to raise this cat's PCV by 1%. If we are going to increase it by 10% we will need 60ml of packed red blood cells. You have a 6-kg cat that you wish to raise his PCV from 15 to 25%. You plan to administer packed red blood cells. How many milliliters of packed red blood cells will this cat need? A) 15ml B) 120ml C) 60ml D) 30ml 4-8L of fresh whole blood IV: In the case of an acute blood loss such as this, the most important treatment is whole blood. Other sodium-containing fluids may be beneficial while the blood is being collected if this will not result in losing time in getting the whole blood into this cow. In most cases the single blood transfusion results in recovery. After about 24 hours the cow will exhibit melena as the digested blood reaches the rectum. You are called to examine and treat a valuable 3 year old show cow that appeared normal yesterday but has collapsed and is too weak to get up (see photo). You examine her and find T=102F or 38.9 C, HR=130, and RR=42. Her heart is pounding very loudly. The mucous membranes of her eyes, mouth and vulva are all very pale. You diagnose an acutely bleeding abomasal ulcer. What is the most important treatment? A) 4l of commercial plasma IV plus vitK B) 4-8L of fresh whole blood IV C) 40L of saline IV D) 20L of 1.3% sodium bicarbonate IV E) 40L balanced electrolytes orally Tyzzer's disease: This is the most likely cause because of the age of the foal and the acute nature of the disease. Tyzzer's disease is caused by Clostridium piliformis, which causes an acute necrotizing hepatitis. It affects only foals from about 1-6 weeks of age. Theiler's disease is a condition of adult horses. Clostridium novyi is rare in horses and seen much more in sheep and cattle. Herpesvirus can cause hepatitis but is usually seen at or very soon after birth. A one-month old foal develops fever, icterus, and diarrhea acutely. Bloodwork shows hyperfibrinogenemia, hypoglycemia, and elevated liver enzymes. Which of these conditions is most likely? A) Theiler's disease B) Clostridium novyi type B C) Herpesviral hepatitis D) Tyzzer's disease The radiograph here shows a severe symmetrical alveolar pattern in the perihilar region extending to the right and left caudal lung lobes. The heart is tall on the lateral view causing dorsal elevation of the trachea. This, in conjunction with the physical findings, is compatible with left congestive heart failure (CHF) secondary to mitral valve regurgitation. The dog also has hepatic congestion evident by enlargement on the radiograph. Treatment for CHF include diuretics (furosemide/Lasix, hydrochlorothiazide, spironolactone), arterial vasodilators (enalapril, benazepril, amlodipine, hydralazine), positive inotropes (pimobendan), and venodilators (nitroglycerine). Clavamox and enrofloxacin are antibiotics which could be used to treat pneumonia, but that is not this dog's problem. Immiticide is the treatment for heartworm. Atenolol is a beta blocker and not part of the management of mitral regurgitation or CHF. Atropine or a pacemaker would be indicated for conduction problems. An 11-year old female Pomeranian presents to you for coughing and exercise intolerance. On exam: Wt: 9.25 lbs, T: 101.2F (38.4 C), HR: 132 bpm, RR: Panting, mucous membranes are pink. She has mild tracheal sensitivity and a grade III-IV/VI left apical holosystolic murmur and grade II/VI right apical holosystolic murmur. Femoral pulses are strong and synchronous, with a regular rhythm. She has harsh lung sounds bilaterally. On abdominal palpation, you note hepatomegaly. You find bilateral luxating patellas. You take chest radiographs (see image) and decide to treat the dog based on these findings. Which medication plan is most appropriate? A) Furosemide and enalapril B) Oxygen and atenolol C) Immiticide (Melarsomine) D) Atropine and a temporary pacemaker E) Clavamox and enrofloxacin portal-systemic shunt: Ptyalism is a sign commonly seen with PSS in cats but not dogs, and the copper-colored iris is a striking and almost pathognomonic finding in conjunction with other clinical findings. Hemolytic anemia could cause icterus but not the change in iris color. Animals with polycystic kidney disease would not have a copper-colored iris. Toxoplasma can cause ocular signs such as uveitis but would not have a copper iris. A 6-month old cat presents for having ptyalism and for being underweight. On physical examination, you note a bright copper color to the cat's iris bilaterally. What is this suggestive of? A) Toxoplasmosis B) Portal systemici shunt C) Polycystic kidney disease D) Hemolytic anemia recipient red blood cells, donor plasma: In a minor crossmatch, you are looking to see if the factors in the plasma of the donor are going to react to the recipient's red blood cells. Which of these are used in the minor cross match for blood products when looking for a compatible blood donor for a dog? A) Recipient red blood cells, donor plasma B) Donor red blood cells, recipient plasma C) Donor red blood cells, donor plasma D) Recipient red blood cells, recipient plasma osteosarcoma. Chondrosarcoma, fibrosarcoma and hemangiosarcoma can all be primary bone tumors but are much less commo