19 -CAPM Final Practice Exam 150 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT

19 -CAPM Final Practice Exam 150 Questions with Verified Answers The processes required to define the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and determine the appropriate course of action to achieve the project objectives. A. Executing process group B. Monitoring and controlling process group C. Scoping process group D. Planning process group - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 210, #1 Answer: D The processes that track, review, and regulate the performance and progress of the project. A. Evaluating process group B. Executing process group C. Monitoring and controlling process group D. Planning process group - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 210, #2 Answer: C The processes that are performed to complete the work of the project as defined in the project management plan. A. Conduct process group B. Executing process group C. Planning process group D. Integration process group - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 210, #3 Answer: B This process group includes processes spanning all ten knowledge areas: A. Initiating process group B. Executing process group C. Planning process group D. Monitoring and controlling process group - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 210, #4 Answer: C The majority of the project team's time, efforts, and expense are applied during this process group: A. Planning process group B. Executing process group C. Integration process group D. Monitoring and controlling process group - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 210, #5 Answer: B Includes status reports, information notes, electronic dashboards, justifications, memos, etc. A. Work performance information B. Work performance data C. Work performance reports D. Work performance outputs - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 210, #6 Answer: C The difference between work performance information and work performance data can best be described as: A. Data is the raw project observations whereas information has been analyzed through the control processes B. Data and information are fundamentally the same C. Information is the raw project observations whereas data has been analyzed through the control processes D. Information is an input to data which is an input to the work performance reports - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 210, #7 Answer: A The documented start and finish dates of activities, actual costs and durations, percent work physically completed would all be considered: A. Work performance inputs B. Work performance data C. Work performance information D. Work performance reports - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 210, #8 Answer: B Forecasts, such as budget and schedule forecasts, would be considered A. Work performance information B. Work performance data C. Work performance outputs D. Work performance reports - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 211, #9 Answer: A Forecasts are considered work performance information as it is project data that has been analyzed through the control schedule and control cost processes. Which statement is most accurate: A. Work performance reports precedes work performance data B. Work performance data precedes work performance information C. Work performance information precedes work performance data D. Work performance reports and information are integrated into work performance data - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 211, #10 Answer: B Work performance data precedes work performance information. The data is analyzed through the monitor and control processes and the output is work performance information. Those processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase. A. Initiating process group B. Integration process group C. Initiating knowledge area D. Integration knowledge area - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 211, #11 Answer: A This knowledge are has processes in all five process groups A. Scope B. Procurement C. Integration D. Communication - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 211, #12 Answer: C The validate scope process: A. Is in the planning process group B. Is in the executing process group C. Is in the closing process group D. Is in the monitoring and controlling process group - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 211, #13 Answer: D Which of the following processes is not in the executing process group? A. Acquire project team B. Perform integrated change control C. Manage project team D. Perform quality assurance - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 211, #14 Answer: B The perform integrated change control process is in what knowledge area? A. Scope B. Quality C. Change D. Integration - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 211, #15 Answer: D Which process is in the initiating process group? A. Identify stakeholders B. Validate scope C. Develop project management plan D. Define scope - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 211, #16 Answer: A Which of the following process is not a procurement process? A. Conduct procurements B. Control procurements C. Manage procurements D. Close procurements - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 211, #17 Answer: C Which of the following is not a stakeholder management process? A. Evaluate stakeholder expectations B. Identify stakeholders C. Control stakeholder engagement D. Plan stakeholder management - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 212, #18 Answer: A Which process is not in the Monitoring and Controlling process group? A. Validate scope B. Perform integrated change control C. Monitor and control project work D. Conduct procurements - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 212, #19 Answer: D Conduct Procurements is in the Executing process group Which process is not in the executing process group? A. Perform quantitative risk analysis B. Manage project team C. Conduct procurements D. Perform quality assurance - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 212, #20 Answer: A Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis is in the Planning process group You have secured written authorization for your project. What process has been completed? A. Develop project management plan B. Complete project initiation C. Direct and manage project work D. Develop project charter - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 212, #21 Answer: D The deliverable are an output of what process? A. Control quality B. Scope management C. Direct and manage project work D. Develop project management plan - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 212, #22 Answer: C All of the following are key benefits of developing the project charter, except: A. It creates a formal record of the project B. It determines the project budget C. It establishes the project start date D. It is a direct way for senior management to formally accept the project - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 212, #23 Answer: B The charter does not determine the budget. The project budget and the cost baseline will be a result of the Determine Budget process. The develop project charter has two tools/techniques that are used: A. Project management plan and budget B. Expert judgement and facilitation techniques C. Analytical techniques and group creativity techniques D. Brainstorming and meetings - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 212, #24 Answer: B Which of the following statements is least accurate regarding the project charter? A. The approved charter formally initiates the project B. A project manager is identified and assigned as early as feasible C. The project charter should not be authored by the sponsoring entity D. It is recommended that the project manager participate in the development of the project charter - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 212, #25 Answer: C The project charter is typically authored by the sponsoring entity. A narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by the project, created by the sponsor for internal projects or from the customer for external projects. A. Statement of work B. Project charter C. Requirements document D. Business case - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 212, #26 Answer: A The statement of work comes from the requesting party. This document, used for decision making purposes, determines whether or not the project is worth the investment. A. Project scope statement B. Business case C. Project charter D. Project statement of work - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 213, #27 Answer: B The business case, typically completed by the project sponsor, provides the justification for investing in a project. Organizational standard processes, procedures, templates, historical information, and lessons learned used to develop the project charter are all considered: A. Organization process assets B. Enterprise environmental factors C. Corporate communications D. Expert judgment - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 213, #28 Answer: A The process of defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan: A. Create subsidiary plans B. Design project approach C. Develop project management plan D. Collect requirements - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 213, #29 Answer: C The project management plan describes how the work will be executed, monitored, and controlled and collects and integrates the following components except A. Scope baseline B. Change management baseline C. Cost baseline D. Subsidiary plans - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 213, #30 Answer: B The only three baselines are the scope, schedule, and cost baselines Two key outputs from the direct and manage project work process are: A. Approved changes and quality measurements B. Deliverables and work performance data C. The project charter and detailed risk responses D. Work performance information and implemented changes - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 213, #31 Answer: B An intentional action taken to realign the performance of the project with the project management plan. A. Variance response B. Scope change C. Corrective action D. Defect repair - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 213, #32 Answer: C A corrective action is an action taken to realign the performance of the project with the baselines, reactive in nature. Any unique verifiable product, capability to perform a service, or result that is required to be produced to complete a process, phase, or project. Typically tangible components: A. Requirement B. Deliverable C. Prototype D. Work package - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 213, #33 Answer: B What is the key benefit of monitoring and controlling project work? A. It allows the stakeholders to understand the current state of the project and the budget and schedule forecasts B. It allows the project manager to make proactive changes to the plan C. It allows the team members to reduce and reallocate their work evenly D. It allows the sponsor to determine the appropriate funding limits - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 213, #34 Answer: A The physical or electronic representation of work performance information, compiled in project documents with an intent to generate awareness, decision, and actions. A. Project reports B. Work performance reports C. Project performance appraisals D. Work performance data - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 214, #35 Answer: B The key benefit of this process is that it provides lessons learned, the formal ending of the project, and the release of organization resources to pursue new endeavors. A. Perform integrated change control B. Dismiss project team C. Project retirement D. Close phase or project - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 214, #36 Answer: D The two key outputs of the Perform Integrated Change Control Process are: A. Change requests and meetings B. Approved change requests and change log C. Change log and change requests D. Approved change requests and issue log - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 214, #37 Answer: B An intentional action taken to modify a nonconforming product or product component: A. Quality control B. Requirements modification C. Defect repair D. Corrective action - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 214, #38 Answer: C Which statement is most accurate? A. The define scope process precedes the create work breakdown structure process B. The WBS must be complete in order to define scope C. The scope baseline is an output of the define scope process D. The scope statement is produced after the WBS - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 214, #39 Answer: A The Define Scope process precedes the Create WBS process, as the scope statement is needed in order to complete the scope baseline. The activity attributes are to the activity list as what is to the WBS? A. WBS dictionary B. WBS details C. Work package attributes D. Work descriptions - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 214, #40 Answer: A The scope baseline is an output of what process? A. Plan scope management B. Define scope C. Collect requirements D. Create WBS - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 214, #41 Answer: D Requirements documentation and the requirements traceability matrix are: A. Both outputs of the collect requirements process B. Both outputs of the define scope process C. Outputs of both plan scope management and plan requirements management D. Both outputs of create scope baseline - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 214, #42 Answer: A Documents how the scope will be defined, validated, and controlled: A. Scope statement B. Scope management plan C. Statement of work D. Project charter - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 214, #43 Answer: B A technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for further brainstorming or for prioritization. A. Delphi technique B. Requirements gathering C. Affinity diagram D. Nominal group technique - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 215, #44 Answer: D A multicriteria decision analysis A. Is a technique that utilizes a decision matrix to provide a systematic analytical approach for establishing criteria to evaluate and rank many ideas B. Is a technique in which ideas created through brainstorming sessions are consolidated into a single map to reflect commonality and differences in understanding C. Is a technique used to generate and collect multiple ideas related to project and product requirements D. Is a technique that allows large numbers of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 215, #45 Answer: A An assessment process having multiple alternatives with an expected outcome in the form of future actions, used to generate, classify, and prioritize product requirements: A. Multi-criteria decision analysis B. Group decision-making techniques C. Affinity diagram D. Brainstorming - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 215, #46 Answer: A Tools/techniques used to validate scope include: A. Brainstorming and group decision-making techniques B. Inspection and expert judgement C. Brainstorming and meetings D. Inspection and group decision-making techniques - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 215, #47 Answer: D The tool/technique used to control scope: A. Variance analysis B. Earned value management C. Inspection D. Meetings - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 215, #48 Answer: A The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline A. Validate scope B. Control scope C. Plan scope D. Monitor scope - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 215, #49 Answer: B The following is true about the WBS: A. The WBS is another term for the Gantt chart B. Each descending level of the WBS represents an increasingly detailed definition of the project work C. Work not in the WBS is usually defined in the scope statement of the project D. The WBS shows only the critical path activities - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 215, #50 Answer: B You have just been made the project manager of the redesign project. You are trying to read the WBS and are unable to understand some of the WBS components. Which should be your firs step to understand this? A. Refer to the WBS dictionary B. Refer to the scope statement C. Refer to the project charter D. Contact the previous project manager - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 215, #51 Answer: A Refer to the WBS dictionary, as that will provide back-end details. An output of the define scope process is: A. Work breakdown structure B. Scope breakdown structure C. Project scope statement D. Scope control plan - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 216, #52 Answer: C What is the WBS typically used for? A. To organize and define the total scope of the project B. To identify the logical person to be project sponsor C. To define the level of reporting the seller provides the buyer D. As a record of when work elements are assigned to individuals - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 216, #53 Answer: A Which of the following is a tool/technique used to create the WBS: A. Decomposition B. Analogous estimating C. Inspection D. Group creativity techniques - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 216, #54 Answer: A Decomposition is the tool/technique used to create the WBS: decomposing the deliverables into work packages. Which of the following statements is true about the WBS? A. The WBS is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed B. The WBS is an unstructured list of activities in a chart form C. The WBS is the same as the organizational breakdown structure D. The WBS is the scope baseline - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 216, #55 Answer: A You have completed your activity list and activity attributes. What process have you completed? A. Develop schedule B. Create WBS C. Define activities D. Scope decomposition - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 216, #56 Answer: C Which statement is least accurate regarding the PDM? A. The PDM is synonymous with AON B. The PDM is an output of sequencing activities C. The PDM only displays finish-to-start relationships D. The PDM is a type of schedule network diagram - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 216, #57 Answer: C The PDM can display all four relationship types: finish-to-start, start-to-start, finish-to-finish, and start-to-finish. The difference between the project schedule and the schedule baseline could best be described as: A. The project schedule is updated throughout the project but the schedule baseline is only updated when there's an approved change to the scope B. The terms are synonymous C. The baseline is created before the schedule D. The schedule baseline is updated throughout the project and then compared to the project schedule - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 216, #58 Answer: A The schedule forecasts are an output of what process A. Forecast schedule B. Control schedule C. Develop schedule D. Develop project management plan - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 216, #59 Answer: A Activity C has a start-to-start relationship with Activity D. Activity C is 12 days and Activity D is 15 days. If the start of Activity D gets delayed by six days, what is the best case duration? A. 27 days B. 15 days C. 33 days D. 21 days - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 216, #60 Answer: D The best case duration for a start-to-start relationship would be for both activities to happen concurrently. That would result in a 15 day duration, however, the 6-day delay must be added to that bringing it to 21 days. The test plan design must be approved by the project engineer prior to implementation. This represents what type of dependency? A. Hard logic B. Mandatory C. Preferential D. External - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 217, #61 Answer: C Because it is not a physical dependency, it would be considered a preferential dependency. Which statement is most accurate regarding resource leveling and smoothing? A. Resource smoothing must occur before resource leveling B. Resource leveling may alter the critical path whereas resource smoothing will not C. Resource smoothing may alter the critical path whereas resource leveling will not D. The terms smoothing and leveling are synonymous - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 217, #62 Answer: B In a finish-to-start precedence relationship with a one-day lead: A. The subsequent activity can start one day before the precedent activity is completed B. The precedent activity can start one day before the subsequent activity C. The subsequent activity cannot start until one day after the precedent activity finishes D. The precedent activity must start within one day of when the successor activity starts - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 217, #63 Answer: A In a finish-to-start relationship with a one-day lead, the successor activity can start one day before the predecessor activity is finished. Which of the following is an example of a FS (finish-to-start) interactivity relationship? A. Activity B cannot finish until Activity A is complete B. Activity B cannot start until Activity A is complete C. Activity B cannot finish until Activity A starts D. Activity B cannot start until Activity A starts - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 217, #64 Answer: B In a finish-to-start relationship, the predecessor must finish before the successor can start. If the planned value (PV) is $275k and the earned value (EV) is $300k, the schedule variance (SV) is: A. $25k B. ($25k) C. $125k D. $575k - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 217, #65 Answer: A SV = EV - PV SV = $300k - $275k = $25k The critical chain method: A. Is an alternative to the critical path method B. Manages the total float of network paths C. Modifies the schedule to account for limited resources D. Does not take into account resource availability - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 217, #66 Answer: C When correcting a scheduling problem, what is the first technique a project manager should consider? A. Fast-tracking B. Crashing C. Reducing project scope D. Outsourcing - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 217, #67 Answer: A The first technique a project manager should consider is fast-tracking as it does not increase the costs and it preserves the scope of the project. Top-down duration estimating is also known as: A. PERT estimating B. Analogous estimating C. Parametric estimating D. SWAG estimating - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 217, #68 Answer: B When crashing a task, the project team needs to focus on: A. Non-critical tasks B. As many tasks as possible C. Accelerating performance of those tasks on critical path D. Accelerating performance by minimizing costs - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 217, #69 Answer: C When crashing a project, the team will focus on accelerating the tasks on the critical path. They are accelerating performance by increasing costs, not minimizing costs. The EV is $92k and the PV is $85k. This suggests the project is: A. Under budget B. Over budget C. Behind schedule D. Ahead of schedule - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 218, #70 Answer: D Schedule Variance (SV) = Earned Value (EV) - Planned Value (PV) SV = $92k - $85k = $7k (ahead of schedule) The schedule variance is $22k and the planned value is $55k. As such: A. The earned value is $77k B. The earned value is $33k C. The actual costs are $77k D. The SPI is 0.85 - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 218, #71 Answer: A Schedule Variance (SV) = Earned Value (EV) - Planned Value (PV) $22k = EV - $55k $77k = EV Adding resources to the critical path is an example of: A. Fast-tracking B. Crashing C. Active risk acceptance D. Decomposition - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 218, #72 Answer: B The project is 30% complete and has a budget of $90k. The actual costs paid-to-date are $25k and the budgeted costs to-date were $30k. What is the status of the project schedule? A. Behind schedule B. On schedule C. Ahead of schedule D. Unable to determine - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 218, #73 Answer: A Earned Value (EV) - $27k Actual Cost (AC) = $25k Planned Value (PV) = $30k Cost Variance (CV) = EV - AC = $27k - $25k = $2k (under budget) Schedule Variance (SV) = EV - PV = $27k - $30k = ($3k) (behind schedule) At six months in, your $785k project is 35% complete and the TCPI is 0.74 and you've spent $95k to-date. What is the earned value of the project? A. $595k B. $580,900 C. $690k D. $274,750 - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 218, #74 Answer: D Earned Value (EV) = Budget at Completion (BAC) x % Complete EV = $785k x 0.35 = $274,750 The project has an earned value of $87,750. Costs-to-date have been $110k and the budget is $195k. What percent complete is this project? A. Unable to determine B. 80% C. 45% D. 56% - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 218, #75 Answer: C Earned Value (EV) = $87,750 Actual Costs (AC) = $110k Budget at Completion (BAC) = $195k EV = BAC x % Completion $87,750 / $195k = 0.45 The project is 45% complete Your project has an earned value of $300k despite invoices totaling $325k. You've calculated your TCPI as 1.14. What is your budget? A. $500k B. $325k C. $342k D. $370,500 - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 218, #76 Answer: A TCPI = (BAC - EV) / (BAC - AC) BAC = x 1.14 = (x - $300k) / (x - $325k) x - $300k = 1.14x - $370,500 -0.14x - $300k = ($370,500) -0.14x = ($70,500) x = $503,571 if that was incredibly painful for you, just plug in the four answers until you find one that works. A cost performance index of 0.8 suggests the project is: A. Under-budget to-date B. On budget C. Behind schedule D. Over-budget to-date - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 218, #77 Answer: D A CPI of 0.8 indicates the project is 20% over-budget to-date For a project with an unexpected cost variance that is not expected to recur, which EAC formula would be most appropriate? A. AC + BAC - EV B. BAC / CPI C. ETC + AC D. BAC + CPI - EV - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 219, #78 Answer: A Atypical EAC formula Parametric cost estimating involves: A. Defining the parameters of the project life cycle B. Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package C. Using a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables to calculate a cost or duration estimate D. Using the actual cost of a similar project to estimate total project costs - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 219, #79 Answer:C Parametric estimating involves using a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables to calculate the estimate (unit cost or productivity rate) Analogous estimating: A. Uses bottom-up estimating techniques B. Uses the actual cost of previous, similar projects as the basis for estimating C. Is used most frequently in the later stages of a project D. Summarizes estimates for individual work items - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 219, #80 Answer: B Which statement is most accurate: A. The cost estimates are the project budget B. The cost estimates, applied across the schedule, create the budget C. The project budget is developed first and then decomposed into cost estimates D. The budget may be progressively elaborated whereas the cost estimates must be determined completely at the start of the project - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 219, #81 Answer: B The project has an earned value of $87,750. Costs-to-date have been $110k, and the budget is $195k. What is the status of the project? A. Appears ahead of schedule B. Appears over budget C. Appears both over budget and behind schedule D. Unable to determine based on the information provided - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 219, #82 Answer: B Earned Value (EV) = $87,750 Actual Cost (AC) = $110k Budget at Completion (BAC) = $195k Cost Variance (CV) = EV - AC = $87,750 - $110k = ($22,250) The $350k project has a forecasted ($90k) variance at completion (VAC). What is the estimate at completion (EAC) forecast? A. $440k B. $260k C. $350k D. $390k - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 219, #83 Answer: A Variance at Completion (VAC) = Budget at Completion (BAC) - Estimate at Completion (EAC) ($90k) = $350k - EAC EAC = $440k The project has a TCPI of 0.85. This means: A. The project is 15% over budget B. The project has 15% more money than work C. The project has 15% more work than money D. The project is 15% ahead of schedule - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 219, #84 Answer: B A TCPI of 0.85 represents that the project has 15% more money than work; a positive situation. This is considered an assessment of correctness: A. Grade B. Quality C. Precision D. Accuracy - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 219, #85 Answer: D Accuracy is an assessment of correctness. The costs associated with assessing the quality of a product is considered: A. CMMI B. Cost of conformance C. Cost of non-conformance D. Cost benefit analysis - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 220, #86 Answer: B The costs associated with assessing the quality of a product are considered the cost of conformance. Also known as the Ishikawa diagrams, these diagrams start with the problem and seek to identify the root cause or causes of the problem: A. Fishbone B. Checksheet C. Control chart D. Pareto chart - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 220, #87 Answer: A Ishikawa diagrams are also known as fishbone or cause-and-effect diagrams. Varying in complexity, these tools aid organizations in ensuring consistency in frequently performed tasks: A. Quality metrics B. Quality diagrams C. Quality measurements D. Quality checklists - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 220, #88 Answer: D Quality checklists aid organizations in ensuring consistency in frequently performed tasks. The difference between a quality metric and a quality measurement can be best described as: A. A metric describes an attribute whereas a measurement is an actual value B. A metric is an actual value whereas a measurement is how it will be calculated C. A measurement describes an attribute whereas a metric is an actual value D. A measurement is an actual value whereas a metric is how it will be documented - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 220, #89 Answer: A A quality metric describes an attribute whereas a measurement is an actual value. Quality metrics are an output of the Plan Quality Management process and the quality control measurements are an output of the Control Quality process. Comparing actual or planned project practices to those of comparable projects through benchmarking can be used for all of the following except: A. Identify areas for improvement B. Provide a basis for measuring performance C. Generate best practices D. Increase customer acceptance - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 220, #90 Answer: D The process of monitoring and recording results of quality activities to assess performance and recommend changes as necessary A. Quality assurance B. Quality control C. Process improvement D. Quality management - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 220, #91 Answer: A Once a deliverable has been evaluated through the control quality process, it is considered: A. Validated B. Verified C. Accepted D. Approved - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 220, #92 Answer: B A special type of histogram that focuses on identifying the sources that cause the highest frequency of problem effects: A. Pareto chart B. Bar chart C. Control chart D. Run chart - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 220, #93 Answer: A According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, the highest level need is: A. Self-esteem B. Love and belonging C. Success D. Self-actualization - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 221, #94 Answer: D He believed that resources will put in more effort if they believe they will receive a greater reward. A. Maslow B. McClelland C. Vroom D. Herzberg - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 221, #95 Answer: C McGregor's theory of X and Y states: A. X people are self-motivated and Y people are lazy and need to be micro-managed B. X factors are those things intrinsic to the work and Y factors are those things extrinsic to the work C. Y people are self-motivated and X people are lazy and need to be micro-managed D. Y factors are those things intrinsic to the work and X factors are those things extrinsic to the work - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 221, #96 Answer: C He said that individuals have varying levels of need for achievement A. McClelland B. Maslow C. McGregor D. McAnderson - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 221, #97 Answer: A According to Herzberg's theory of motivation: A. Salary is a hygiene factor B. Salary is a motivator C. Salary is intrinsic to the work being done D. Salary is not a factor - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 221, #98 Answer: A Securing resources from external sources: A. Acquisition B. Vendor management C. Virtual teams D. Resource management - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 221, #99 Answer: A The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, reporting relationships, and creating a staffing management plan. A. Develop project team B. Acquire project team C. Plan human resource management D. Manage project team - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 221, #100 Answer: C The process of improving competencies, team member interactions, and overall team environment to enhance project performance. A. Plan human resource management B. Develop project team C. Manage project team D. Acquire project team - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 221, #101 Answer: B The process of tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and managing changes to optimize project performance. A. Plan human resource management B. Acquire project team C. Develop project team D. Manage project team - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 221, #102 Answer: D Expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members. A. Ground rules B. Team code C. Behavioral norms D. Team dynamics - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 222, #103 Answer: A A document that graphically depicts the project team members and their interrelationships for a specific project. A. Responsibility assignment matrix B. HR management plan C. Staffing management plan D. Project organization chart - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 222, #104 Answer: D A hierarchical representation of resources by category and type A. Responsibility assignment matrix B. Resource breakdown structure C. Team directory D. Project organization chart - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 222, #105 Answer: B The process of developing an appropriate approach and plan for project communications based on the stakeholder's information needs and requirements, and available organizational assets. A. Plan communications management B. Manage communications C. Control communications D. Develop communication strategy - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 222, #106 Answer: A The process of creating, collecting, distributing, storing, retrieving, and the ultimate disposition of project information in accordance with the communications management plan. A. Plan communications management B. Manage communications C. Control communications D. Distribute communications - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 222, #107 Answer: B Composed of a sender, receiver, message, medium, and noise. A. Interactive communication B. Communication model C. Communication plan D. Communication strategy - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 222, #108 Answer: B A project with 32 team members expands to 41 team members. How many additional communication channels have been added? A. 324 B. 9 C. 820 D. 496 - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 222, #109 Answer: A Using the communication channel formula of n (n - 1) / 2: First team size: 32 (31) / 2 = 496 New team size: 41 (40) / 2 = 820 Additional channels = 820 - 496 = 324 To conduct a communication requirements analysis, this formula would be most appropriate: A. n (n-1) / 2 B. (O + 4M + P) / 6 C. n (n + 1) / 2 D. (O + M + P) / 6 - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 222, #110 Answer: A Used for very large volumes of information, or for very large audiences, and requires the recipients to access the communication content at their own discretion. A. Interactive B. Push C. Pull D. Surveys - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 223, #111 Answer: C Pull communication would require that the receiver proactively access the content. The act of collecting and distributing performance information, including status reports, progress measurements, and forecasts. Involves the periodic collection and analysis of baseline versus actual data to understand and communicate the project progress and performance as well as to forecast the project results. A. Status reporting B. Performance reporting C. Forecast reporting D. Earned value reporting - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 223, #112 Answer: B Thoughts or ideas are translated into language by the sender. A. Encode B. Decode C. Acknowledge D. Communicate - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 223, #113 Answer: A When choosing communication technology, all of these factors may be considered, except: A. Urgency of the need for the information B. Availability of technology C. Ease of use D. Schedule forecasts - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 223, #114 Answer: D The response strategy that changes the plan to eliminate the probability of risk occurrence: A. Avoidance B. Elimination C. Exploitation D. Mitigation - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 223, #115 Answer: A The response strategy that changes the plan to reduce the probability and/or impact of a threat: A. Avoidance B. Mitigation C. Risk reduction D. Transference - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 223, #116 Answer: B Used when the primary response is not effective: A. Fallback plan B. Workaround plan C. Contingency plan D. Contingent response strategy - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 223, #117 Answer: A A fallback plan is used when the primary response is not effective. The primary response may be a proactive risk strategy (Avoid, transfer, mitigate) or a contingent response strategy. A risk that arises directly as a result of implementing a risk response. A. Response risk B. Residual risk C. Secondary risk D. Resulting risk - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 223, #118 Answer: C A response to a negative risk event that is not planned in advance. A. Workaround B. Contingency C. Fallback D. Secondary - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 223, #119 Answer: A The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact. A. Identify risks B. Perform quantitative risk analysis C. Prioritize risk responses D. Perform qualitative risk analysis - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 224, #120 Answer: D The process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives. A. Perform qualitative risk analysis B. Perform quantitative risk analysis C. Performance reporting D. Project forecasting - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 224, #121 Answer: B A provision in the project management plan to mitigate cost and/or schedule risk. A. Reserve B. Clause C. Contingency D. Buffer - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 224, #122 Answer: C Risk appetite is best described as: A. The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on, in anticipation of a reward B. The degree, amount, or volume of risk than an organization or individual will withstand C. Measure of the level of uncertainty or the level of impact at which a stakeholder may have a specific interest D. The desire by an organization to grow in a speculative environment - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 224, #123 Answer: A Technique to evaluate the degree to which the data about risks is useful for risk management A. Risk review technique B. Risk response planning C. Risk data integrity evaluation D. Risk data quality assessment - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 224, #124 Answer: D Risk mitigation is to threats as what strategy is to opportunities? A. Enhancement B. Exploitation C. Acceptance D. Sharing - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 224, #125 Answer: A Review and determination of the timing of actions that may need to occur sooner than other risk items A. Risk prioritization B. Risk action plan C. Qualitative risk analysis D. Risk urgency assessment - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 224, #126 Answer: D Joint ventures or other partnerships would be an example of what risk strategy? A. Sharing B. Transference C. Mitigation D. Enhancement - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 224, #127 Answer: A Which statement is most accurate regarding risk acceptance? A. No action is taken B. For threats, may be passive or active C. For opportunities, may be passive or active D. For both threats and opportunities, may be passive or active - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 224, #128 Answer: B Which of the following is not an output of the plan procurement management process? A. Agreements B. Make-or-buy decisions C. Procurement statement of work D. Source selection criteria - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 225, #129 Answer: A Outputs from the conduct procurements process include: A. Contracts, procurement documents, SOW B. Selected sellers, SOW, procurement documents C. Selected sellers, agreements, resource calendars D. Contracts, resource calendars, make-or-buy decisions - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 225, #130 Answer: C The most commonly used contract type is: A. Fixed price incentive fee B. Firm fixed price C. Cost plus fixed fee D. Cost plus award fee - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 225, #131 Answer: B Firm fixed price (FFP) This contract type is used whenever the seller's performance period spans a considerable period of years, with a special provision for price adjustments due to changed conditions. A. Fixed price incentive fee B. Firm fixed price C. Cost plus award fee D. Fixed price with economic price adjustment - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 225, #132 Answer: D The fixed price with economic price adjustment (FP-EPA) contract allows for special price adjustments for fluctuations in the price of commodities. Which statement is most accurate: A. The buyer has increased risk in a cost-reimbursable contract B. The buyer has increased risk in a fixed price contract C. The seller has increased risk in a time and material contract D. The seller has increased risk in a cost-reimbursable contract - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 225, #133 Answer: A The buyer has increased risk in a cost-reimbursable contract, as the final costs will not be known. Provides the project flexibility to redirect a seller whenever the scope of work cannot be precisely defined at the start and needs to be altered, or when high risks may exist in the effort. A. Purchase order B. Cost-reimbursable contract C. Fixed-price contract D. Time and material contract - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 225, #134 Answer: B If the work is not known in detail prior to contract execution, the buyer will need to enter into a cost reimbursable contract Developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within the related contract. A. Fixed price contract B. Procurement documents C. Procurement statement of work D. Make-or-buy analysis - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 225, #135 Answer: C Used to ensure that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement requirements. A. Procurement documents B. Pre-bid conferences C. Procurement statement of work D. Source selection criteria - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 225, #136 Answer: B The process of managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance, and making changes and corrections to contracts as appropriate. A. Conduct procurements B. Control procurements C. Manage procurements D. Administer procurements - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 226, #137 Answer: B In a CPFF contract, the fixed fee is calculated: A. After the work is complete B. As a percentage of estimated costs C. As a percentage of actual costs D. At the buyer's discretion - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 226, #138 Answer: B If it was calculated based on actual costs, it would not be fixed. A structured review of the seller's progress to deliver project scope and quality, within cost and on schedule, as compared to the contract. A. Procurement performance review B. Procurement audit C. Procurement evaluation D. Seller audit review - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 226, #139 Answer: A Which output is completed first: the stakeholder register or the stakeholder management plan? A. The stakeholder management plan B. Both are completed simultaneously C. The stakeholder register D. There is no relationship between the two - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 226, #140 Answer: C If you have the completed stakeholder register, what process have you completed? A. Plan stakeholder management B. Identify stakeholders C. Manage stakeholders D. Develop project charter - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 226, #141 Answer: B The primary output of the plan stakeholder management process is the: A. Stakeholder register B. Stakeholder engagement matrix C. Stakeholder management plan D. Project management plan - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 226, #142 Answer: C The issue log is an output of what process: A. Identify stakeholders B. Manager stakeholder engagement C. Plan stakeholder management D. Direct and manage project work - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 226, #143 Answer: B In addition to the enterprise environmental factors, organizational process assets, and the procurement documents, this document is an input to the identify stakeholders process: A. Stakeholder register B. Responsibility assignment matrix C. Business case D. Project charter - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 226, #144 Answer: D Individuals, groups or organizations who may affect, be affected by, or perceive themselves to be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a project: A. Project stakeholders B. Key stakeholders C. Primary stakeholders D. Active stakeholders - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 226, #145 Answer: A The stakeholder register typically contains: A. Identification information, financial assessment, and stakeholder classification B. Identification information, assessment information, and stakeholder classification C. Roles and responsibilities, identification information, and financial assessment D. Stakeholder classification, engagement assessment, and identification information - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 227, #146 Answer: B The stakeholder register typically includes identification information, assessment information, and the stakeholder classification. It does not include financial information. The process of communicating and working with stakeholders to meet their needs/expectations, address issues as they occur, and foster appropriate stakeholder engagement in project activities throughout the project life cycle. A. Control stakeholder engagement B. Plan stakeholder management C. Plan communication management D. Manage stakeholder engagement - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 227, #147 Answer: D Classifies stakeholders based on their ability to impose their will, their need for immediate attention, and the appropriateness of their level of involvement. A. Salience model B. Power/interest grid C. Stakeholder engagement strategy D. Stakeholder management plan - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 227, #148 Answer: A The salience model evaluates stakeholders based on three factors: power, urgency, and legitimacy. Tools and techniques used to manage stakeholder engagement include all of the following except: A. Communication methods B. Group creativity techniques C. Interpersonal skills D. Management skills - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 227, #149 Answer: B Which statement is least accurate regarding stakeholders A. They may be supporters, neutral, or resistant B. They are considered key when they have decision-making authority C. They must be actively engaged in the project D. Managing their expectations leads to increased likelihood of project success - CORRECT ANSWER Workbook, CAPM Final Practice Exam, page 227, #150 Answer: C