APGO Part 1 | Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Latest Update 2024

A 24-year-old G0P0 woman presents for a second opinion. She recently had a lowgrade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) Pap and underwent colposcopy with biopsies showing cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN1). This was her first abnormal Pap test. She is in good health and not taking any medication. Her provider recommended a LEEP. She is actively trying to get pregnant, but is concerned that this diagnosis means she has cancer. What is the best next step in management for this patient? - Repeat cytology in 12 months A 20- year-old G0P0 woman presents for her first gynecologic examination. She has recently begun having sexual relations with her boyfriend and they are using condoms for contraception. She has no gynecologic complaints. She is healthy and takes no medications. What is the best next step in management for this patient? - Chlamydia and Gonorrhea test A 32-year-old G2P2 woman presents for a