Animal Nursing and Diagnostic Imaging

Animal Nursing and Diagnostic Imaging What does SOAP stand for? - ANS Subjective Objective Assessment Plan The owner of the animals are the owners of the medical record and are allowed to remove them from the hospital at any time. - ANS False When taking a patient history, it is important to ask open-ended questions. An open-ended question is one that - ANS requires clients to fill in the information themselves. When obtaining the medical history, be sure to get which of the following information about medications the animal is taking? - ANS What are they taking?, how long have they been taking it? In general, it is safe to leave a basket muzzle on a caged animal. - ANS True POMR refers to: - ANS problem-oriented medical record What is the goal in obtaining a history? - ANS Sort through the information provided A rabies pole should be used on any animal that does not have a current rabies vaccine. - ANS False If a client asks you a question that you do not know the answer for, you should: - ANS Find out the correct answer and give that information to the client It is best practice to have clients restrain their own pets. This will keep the pets calm and help the owner feel useful. - ANS False If a cat that you are attempting to restrain for a nail trim has become wildly out of control and is biting and scratching you badly, you should: - ANS Announce loudly that you are letting go and then release your hold on the cat The type of restraint used on cattle depends upon which factors? - ANS Age, Sex, Breed, and previous exposure to people which are examples of defensive mechanisms of cattle? - ANS kicking slightly forward then with an arc backwards and head butting A tail tie for a horse is used for? - ANS anesthesia recovery A/an _______ is a fabric, nylon, or leather strap that fits around a horse's head to provide control. - ANS Halter Which of the following statements about cattle kicking is the most accurate? - ANS The safest place to stand is right next to the shoulder or rear of the animal. A _________ is a simple head catch with a single horizontal bar on each side and an open area in the rear - ANS Stanchion A ___________ restrains cattle by applying pressure to the nasal septum - ANS Nose Ring A working knowledge of ___________ would not necessarily be an advantage when deciding which restraint to use for a particular procedure on a particular patient. - ANS Preferred Techniques A ____________ is the best tool for restraining the head of a dairy cow - ANS Rope Halter A _____________ is a metal clamp-like device that pinches the horse's upper lip between two bars. - ANS Humane Twitch A chain shank can be placed in all of the following locations except - ANS Across horse's nostrils Because some horses try to avoid capture when being approached by a handler who is carrying a lead rope and halter - ANS Rope the horse if necessary Because they are _______________, horses are quick to detect nervousness in their handlers. - ANS Suspicious animals Regarding the restraint of calves - ANS flanking is the placing of a calf into lateral recumbency Regarding the restraint of cattle in chutes and stanchions - ANS The chute usually is found at the end of an alleyway When performing a tail jack on cattle - ANS grasp the tail approximately one-third down from its base using two hands Which of the following considerations is not among the most critical when restraining a horse's head? - ANS Using proper distraction techniques Which of the following statements about distraction techniques when restraining a horse is the most accurate? - ANS Covering the eyes and using a blindfold are separate distraction techniques Which of the following statements about leading a horse is the least accurate? - ANS Wrap the loose end of the lead rope tightly around your left hand When restraining the legs and feet of cattle, how should it be done? - ANS To prevent kicking, a metal bar can be clamped around the animal's flanks Which of the following statements about tail jacking cattle is the least accurate? - ANS Keep the tail just left or right of the midline to avoid fracturing a vertebra A portable partition that is used to move swine by blocking an area is called a hog ____________________. - ANS Hurdle A head harness worn by animals for restraint that extends behind the head and over the nose is a/an _____. - ANS Halter The abbrevviation ADR means? - ANS Ain't doing right If during a physical exam you feel a lump on the left flank, you should: - ANS Feel the right flank for symmetry Which of the following items is not required for a physical exam? - ANS Nail Trimmer The doctor noted in the chart that a patient has altered mentation. What does this mean? - ANS The patient's mental activity is inappropriate If a patient is being seen for itchy, painful ears, you should prepare which of the following items? - ANS Otoscope Why must a physical exam be performed before an animal can receive medical care or be prescribed a medication? - ANS A valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship must exist True or False? A thorough neurological exam is performed during every physical exam. - ANS False True or False? A rectal exam is performed during every physical exam. - ANS False A dog with no gingivitis or plaque accumulation on the teeth would be given a dental score of: - ANS Zero In which species is sinus arrhythmia a normal finding? - ANS Canine True or False? While heart murmurs may be auscultated by a veterinary assistant, only a veterinarian can diagnose their presence. - ANS True Submandibular, popliteal, axillary, and inguinal are all terms that describe: - ANS Lymph Nodes Give an example of an abnormal assessment that you might observe in a patient's eyes. - ANS Discharge, Growth, Color Give an example of an abnormal assessment that you might observe in a patient's ears. - ANS Redness, Discharge Give an example of an abnormal assessment that you might observe in a patient's nose. - ANS Discharge, Bleeding Give an example of an abnormal assessment that you might observe on a patient's skin. - ANS Growths, Matting, Scaling Give an example of an abnormal assessment that you might observe in a patient's hair coat. - ANS Redness, Wounds Give an example of an abnormal assessment that you might observe about a patient's gastrointestinal system. - ANS Missing Teeth, Distention Give an example of an abnormal assessment that you might observe about a patient's respiratory system. - ANS Bradycardia Give an example of an abnormal assessment that you might observe about a patient's urogenital system. - ANS Discharge, Growths, Symmetry Identify in which body system each assessment would be observed Limping= - ANS Musculoskeletal Identify in which body system each assessment would be observed Hair Loss= - ANS Integumentary Identify in which body system each assessment would be observed Pulse Deficit= - ANS Cardiovascular Identify in which body system each assessment would be observed Swollen Vulva= - ANS Urogenital Identify in which body system each assessment would be observed Overgrown Toenails= - ANS Integumentary Identify in which body system each assessment would be observed Wheezing= - ANS Respiratory Identify in which body system each assessment would be observed Swollen Lump= - ANS Integumentary Identify in which body system each assessment would be observed Periodontal Disease= - ANS Gastrointestinal Define this term that describes an assessment that can be found during a physical exam. Obtunded= - ANS A depressed level of consciousness Define this term that describes an assessment that can be found during a physical exam. Anisocoria= - ANS Unequal Pupil Size Define this term that describes an assessment that can be found during a physical exam. Epistaxis= - ANS A nose bleed Define this term that describes an assessment that can be found during a physical exam. Bilateral= - ANS Both sides Define this term that describes an assessment that can be found during a physical exam. Stenosis= - ANS Narrowing Define this term that describes an assessment that can be found during a physical exam. Gingivitis= - ANS Inflammation of the gums Define this term that describes an assessment that can be found during a physical exam. Palpation= - ANS To feel with your hands Define this term that describes an assessment that can be found during a physical exam. Auscultation= - ANS To listen with a stethoscope Define this term that describes an assessment that can be found during a physical exam. Crepitus= - ANS A grating sound of bone on cartilage or fractured parts of a bone Define this term that describes an assessment that can be found during a physical exam. Ataxia= - ANS Lack of coordinated muscle movement The veterinary technician took the horse's _____ _____, which included its HR, RR, and temperature . - ANS Vital Signs The veterinary medical record should always contain the animal's ________, which is a description of the animal. - ANS Signal or Signalment The "S" in SOAP stands for _____. - ANS Subjective Section The "O" in SOAP stands for _____. - ANS Objective Section The "A" in SOAP stands for _____. - ANS Assessment Section The "P" in SOAP stands for _____. - ANS Plan Section A/an ______is a characteristic of disease that can be observed by others. - ANS Sign Define Mortality. - ANS Ratio of diseased animals that die Define Etiology. - ANS Study of disease causes Define Epidemiology. - ANS Study of frequency and distribution relationships Define Hematocrit. - ANS Percent RBCs per given volume of blood Define Prophylaxis - ANS Prevention Define Pyrexia - ANS Fever Define Morbidity - ANS Ratio of diseased animals to well animals Define Phobia - ANS Extreme Fear Lists the equipment that would be necessary for a routine physical exam? - ANS Stethoscope, thermometer, exam gloves and lubricant Normal capillary refill time is: - ANS 1-2 Seconds Normal heart rate of a neonatal kitten would be expected to be: - ANS 200-220 bpm A veterinary assistant is checking the hydration status of a cat and finds that the mucous membranes are tacky to the touch and light pink in color, the extremities are cool, the temperature is 98 F, and the skin elasticity shows obvious tenting when pinched. In estimating the dehydration level of this animal, it should probably be classified as: - ANS Severe A slower than normal heart rate is termed: - ANS Bradycardia Heart rate on most small animals is best determined by a stethoscope placed: - ANS On the left side just behind the elbow of the front left leg Hyperthermia usually occurs in: - ANS Infection or Inflammation If the quick is accidentally cut during a nail trim: - ANS Apply a cauterizing agent Light palpation is used to detect _______; deep palpation is used to assess: - ANS Tenderness; underlying organs Which palpation term would best describe a structure that has air or gas in tissue planes? - ANS Emphysematous A veterinarian who describes the feel of a cyst as fluctuant means it is: - ANS Soft, elastic, and undulant A superficial insult to the skin, such as a scratch or a scrape, is classified as a(n): - ANS Abrasion Complete tissue detachment is classified as: - ANS Avulsion Which type of burn involves structures such as muscle and bone? - ANS 4th Degree Granulation tissue and scar tissue form during this stage of wound healing: - ANS Repair This stage of wound healing is when phagocytes rush to the area to remove foreign and necrotic tissue and bacteria: - ANS Debridement During this stage of wound healing, vasodilation occurs to allow leukocytes and antibodies to rush to the area of injury: - ANS Inflammatory True or False? Burn injuries may take several days for the full extent to become apparent. - ANS True True or False? Wounds can be filled with water-soluble lubricant jelly prior to shaving the area. - ANS True Which phase of wound healing sees scar tissue fading and becoming less noticeable? - ANS Maturation A wound filling with granulation tissue that is healing without being surgically closed is said to be healing by _____ intention. - ANS 2nd A delayed primary closure that usually occurs 4-5 days after an injury to allow for cleaning and debridement of grossly contaminated wounds, such as that seen in trauma patients, is said to be healing by _____ intention. - ANS 3rd Penrose drains should be removed after: - ANS 3-5 days You should decide how to treat a wound based on: - ANS A dog comes in that has an obviously broken radius and ulna. What type of support will the veterinarian most likely instruct you to apply? - ANS Which of the following chemicals is most likely to be used to clean the skin around a wound? - ANS Chlorhexidine What items are needed for wound lavage? - ANS Sterile saline, 3-way stopcock, Large syringe This item is often sutured into place to allow a wound to stay open and drain for a few days: - ANS Penrose Drain What are the purposes of bandages? - ANS Assist in wound healing, Compression of tissues, Stabilization, Protection A Telfa pad is included in which layer of a bandage? - ANS Primary Which layer of a bandage includes cast padding for cushioning and absorbency? - ANS Secondary Vetrap composes the _____ layer of a bandage. - ANS True or False? Chlorhexidine should be used at full, undiluted strength for wound lavage in order to provide the highest level of disinfection. - ANS False True or False? Wounds should always have ointment on them to keep the tissue moist. - ANS False Bandage layers should be applied: - ANS Distal to proximal This type of support is most commonly applied after orthopedic surgery to provide comfort, reduce swelling, and protect the incision site: - ANS Modified Robert Jones Bandage This type of support is applied to immobilize the hip joint: - ANS Ehmer Sling This type of support keeps the carpus, elbow, and shoulder joints in a flexed position: - ANS Velpeau Sling This item can be incorporated into a bandage to provide immobilization of a distal extremity: - ANS Splint The _____ is used to help immobilize the forelimb by cradling the forelimb against the shoulder and chest wall. - ANS Velpeau sling A nonadherent dressing is used: - ANS To avoid disruption of new tissue formation Decubital ulcers can occur with which of the following? - ANS Improper Bandaging In which phase of wound healing does granulation tissue predominate? - ANS Proliferation-collagen phase Small lacerations heal by: - ANS Second intention What is the first step in wound management? - ANS Control of hemorrhage Which phase of wound healing normally occurs roughly four to six days after the injury? - ANS Repair Which type of dressing is best for open wounds with loose necrotic tissue or foreign material on the wound surface? - ANS Dry-to-dry For a wound with copious exudate: - ANS A wet-to-dry dressing should be used Another name for a pressure sore is: - ANS Decubital Ulcer After closure reduction of a luxated hip, this bandage may be placed to help keep the hip in the socket while it heals: - ANS Ehmer Sling Bandages should be checked _____ after initial placement. - ANS Every 12 hours Second-intention healing means: - ANS The wound is cleaned and allowed to close on its own A wound that is closed prematurely can result in: - ANS Dehiscence and infection Bandaging is chosen as a means of covering a wound to: - ANS Absorb wound exudate and prevent further contamination True or False? When applying a head wrap, the affected ear should be reflected over the top of the head to expose the ear canal. - ANS True What are the phases of wound healing in order of occurance? - ANS Inflammation, Debridement, Repair, Maturation How often/when should bandages be changed? - ANS Daily for infected wounds, Every 3-4 days for healing wounds, If there is visible strike-through List four things you need to tell the owner when you are discharging a bandaged patient. - ANS Keep the bandage dry, Watch for swelling, Feel the toes for coldness, Make sure the bandage isn't slipping List three things that are important to remember to do when removing a bandage from a patient - ANS Use a bandage scissors and cut the layers separately, Make sure no body parts are in the area being cut, Don't cut over the wound/incision Define Erythema - ANS redness of the skin Define Necrosis - ANS dead tissue Define Exudate - ANS fluid discharge Define Lavage - ANS To flush or rinse out Define Luxation - ANS dislocation Define Debride - ANS To remove damaged tissue or foreign material from a wound Granulation tissue in horses is often referred to as: - ANS Proud Flesh When taking a radiograph of the tibia, which landmarks need to be included in the image? - ANS knee and hock he doctor tells you that she wants radiographs of a patient's abdomen to check for abnormal gas patterns in the intestines. Which views will you - ANS right lateral and VD Most mistakes in radiography are due to: - ANS Miscalculation of the x-ray machine settings How is scatter radiation best defined? - ANS Low energy radiation that has rebounded off of a patient's body What is milliamperage? - ANS A measure of the number of electrons produced by the filament Kilovoltage peak power affects the radiographic film quality in that: - ANS A kVp setting that is too high darkens the film, making it difficult to see the bones Where is the tungsten filament housed? - ANS In the focusing cup on the x-ray tube You've been developing radiographs throughout the week and notice that a small white spot about the size of a dime appears in the same location on every radiograph. What is the most likely reason for this? - ANS The cassette has a piece of debris blocking the x-ray beams Dosimeter badges report exposure in: - ANS Sievert How is radiographic density best defined? - ANS The degree of blackness on a radiograph Why should the dosimeter badge be worn outside the apron at collar level? - ANS To monitor radiation exposure to the thyroid gland and eyes What does a grid do for an x-ray? - ANS The grid helps direct the x-ray beams onto the film and reduces the amount of scatter radiation Which of the following controls the degree of contrast on a radiograph? - ANS kVp The purpose of the radiology log is to: - ANS Help you determine settings for a patient's follow-up radiographs Satisfy legal and AAHA requirements It is permissible to have the restrainer's hand in the primary beam as long as: - ANS It is never permissible for any part of the restrainer to be in the primary beam Radiographic detail can be best described as: - ANS The sharpness between the areas where tissues and organs meet Radiographic film should be handled carefully and held _____ both when loading cassettes and during processing. - ANS with the pads of your fingers Technique charts: - ANS Are specific to each x-ray machine The most common factors that affect detail on a radiograph are: - ANS Penumbra and Foreshortening Oblique shots in veterinary radiology refer to: - ANS Radiographs taken from an angle to reduce exposure of one anatomical part overlapping another You are given a cassette and asked to develop the film inside it. The automatic processor has been developing films fine all day, but when this film exits the processor, you see that the film is completely clear. What is the most likely cause of this problem? - ANS The film was never exposed to an x-ray beam How should you obtain the correct machine settings when taking radiographs at a new clinic? - ANS Use the settings on the clinic's technique chart and measure accurately For a radiograph to be considered admissible as evidence in a court of law, which of the following is minimally required to be imprinted onto the film? - ANS Patient name or ID number, owner name, hospital name and address, date of the radiograph Milliamperage affects the radiograph quality in that: - ANS Increasing the mA increases the density of the film What absorbs the most x-ray energy? - ANS Metal what has the most significant impact on reducing radiation exposure to veterinary personnel? - ANS Accurate measurement so the number of exposures is minimal The purpose of a grid built into the x-ray tabletop is to: - ANS Allow only the primary x-ray beam to pass through and lessen scatter radiation Radiographs are considered: - ANS Part of the medical record and are owned by the doctor or hospital owner What effect does air have on ultrasound views? - ANS Air disrupts the ultrasound waves and will severely distort the view Radiographic contrast is: - ANS The difference between adjacent areas on a radiographic image The anode heel effect is due to the: - ANS Unequal distribution of the x-ray beam intensity Distortion foreshortening occurs when: - ANS The object is not parallel to the cassette The filament is made of [a] because it is able to withstand high heat. - ANS Tungsten The [a] does not protect you from the primary beam, but monitors the amount of radiation you have been exposed to. - ANS dosimeter and badge X-ray beams pass right through air-filled areas like lungs. This means that the lungs would be referred to as [a] (transparent to x-rays). - ANS radiolucent To minimize the penumbra effect without requiring an impractical increase in mA, the focal film distance should be [a] inches. - ANS 36-40 Patient motion and [a] are the two most common causes of loss of detail on a radiograph. - ANS Penumbra The filament will produce [a] when it is heated. - ANS Electrons In order to reduce scatter radiation, the primary beam can be confined to the area being studied with the use of a [a]. - ANS collimator Ventrodorsal - ANS lying on the back Lateral - ANS Laying on the side Anterioposterior - ANS The front side of the limb to the back side Dorsoventral - ANS lying on the chest Posterioanterior - ANS in the calf and out the shin Dorsopalmar - ANS in the top front of the paw out the bottom Rostrocaudal - ANS In the snout and out the back of the head Mediolateral - ANS From the inside of the limb to the outside Plantarodorsal - ANS In the bottom of the back paw and out the top Oblique - ANS at an angle