ACLS CERTIFICATION EXAM QUIZ 2023 |53 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

The BLS Survey includes assessing which of the following? Responsiveness, Activate EMS and get AED, Circulation, Defibrillation Basic airway skills include all of the following EXCEPT: Placement of laryngeal mask airway (LMA) Which type of suction catheter provides the most effective suctioning of the oropharynx and thick particulate matter? Rigid catheter (Yankauer) Early defibrillation is critical for individuals with sudden cardiac arrest for the following reasons EXCEPT: Individuals in asystole respond well to late defibrillation. In an individual with ventricular fibrillation (VF), what should occur immediately following a shock? Resume CPR An individual should be cleared prior to a shock only when convenient. FALSE It is recommended to interrupt CPR when obtaining IV access for an individual in asystole. FALSE Nausea in conjunction with chest pain may be indicative of myocardial ischemia. TRUE Low blood pressure may be an indication of hemodynamic instability. TRUE In a suspected acute stroke individual, you must always immediately obtain IV access. If the AED advises no shock, you should still defibrillate because defibrillation often restarts the heart with no pulse. FALSE One type of acute coronary syndrome is STEMI. TRUE The ACLS Survey includes assessing which of the following? Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Differential Diagnosis Which of the following is NOT an element of effective resuscitation team dynamics? Shouting or yelling at team members For an individual in respiratory arrest with a pulse, how often should they be ventilated? Give one breath every 5 to 6 seconds, or 10 to 12 breaths per minute. Basic airway skills include all of the following EXCEPT: Placement of endotracheal tube (ET tube) All of the following are examples of advanced airways EXCEPT: Oropharyngeal airway (OPA) What is the purpose of defibrillation? To stun the heart and allow its normal pacemaker to resume electrical activity. True statements about AED use in special situations include all of the following EXCEPT: Leave medication patches in place and place the AED electrode pads directly over the patch. When using a monophasic defibrillator, how many joules should be delivered per shock? 360 J Immediately following a shock, CPR should be resumed for how many minutes? Two minutes For persistent VF/pulseless VT, vasopressors that may be given during CPR include: Epinephrine Antiarrhythmic drugs to consider for persistent VF/pulseless VT include all of the following EXCEPT: Atropine The order of priority for routes of access for drugs is: IV route, IO route, ET route The IV route is preferred for drug administration. If IV access is not available, the next preferred route is: Intraosseous The two most common and easily reversible causes of PEA are: Hypovolemia and hypoxia The cardiac arrest rhythm associated with NO discernible electrical activity on the ECG is termed as _________? Asystole Early access to medical care, from EMS through reperfusion, improves overall outcomes by: Saving more heart tissue from cell death Nitroglycerin should not be used in individuals experiencing which of the following situations? Hypotension or recent Viagra use The best treatment for ST-elevation MI (STEMI) is: Early reperfusion therapy Serious signs and symptoms of unstable tachycardia are usually NOT seen with ventricular rates less than: 150 beats per minute If uncertain whether or not an individual is an appropriate candidate for synchronized cardioversion, the ACLS trained provider should: Seek expert consultation All of the following are found within the 8 D’s of Stroke Care EXCEPT: Debilitation Critical in-hospital goals of stroke care include a neurological assessment by the stroke team and a CT scan performed within ________ of hospital arrival. 10 minutes