PHARM NURS 210 Final Exam Questions and Answers Latest Update 2023/2024 100% Verified

PHARM NURS 210 Final Exam Questions and Answers Latest Update 2023/2024 100% Verified. A patient asks the nurse why she gets yeast infections after a course of antibiotics. The nurse explains, a. “The antibiotics lower your WBC count” b. “People are poorly nourished and hydrated after an infection” c. “Yeast infections happen if the antibiotic is not taken for the full course” d. “Yeast infections are common when the normal body flora are disrupted” Answer: D Rationale: The patient should be advised to ingest buttermilk or yogurt to prevent this superinfection of the body's normal flora. 5) A patient is admitted to the health care facility with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The nurse anticipates administration of which drug? a. Nafcillin (Nallpen) b. Vancomycin (Vancocin) c. Aztreonam (Azactam) d. Piperacillin-tazobactam (Zosyn) Answer: B Rationale: The treatment of choice for MRSA is vancomycin (Vancocin). 6) Which teaching by the nurse has the highest priority for the patient taking azithromycin (Zithromax)? a. Instruct the patient to use sunblock and protective clothing during sun exposure b. Instruct the patient to store drug out of light and extreme heat c. Inform patient that children younger than 8 years should not take the drug, to avoid tooth discoloration d. Instruct the patient to report any loose stools or diarrhea Answer: D Rationale: The patient should be instructed to report loose stools or diarrhea because of possible pseudomembranous colitis. Photosensitivity during sun exposure is common with tetracyclines, which should not be given to children younger than 8 years; the drugs are affected by light and extreme heat. 7) Which statement by a patient who has received teaching on tetracycline therapy indicates that more teaching is indicated? a. “I will store the medication away from light and extreme heat” b. “I will use an additional contraceptive technique because this drug may cause the oral contraceptive I take to be less effective” c. “I will take this medication with an antacid” d. “If my stomach becomes upset when taking this medication, I will take it with non-dairy foods” Answer: C Rationale: Patients taking tetracycline therapy should avoid milk products, iron, and antacids. The medication should be stored away from light and extreme heat. Tetracycline can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives. 8) A patient is ordered to receive vancomycin (Vancocin) for a severe infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for the development of: a. Neurotoxicity b. Hepatotoxicity c. Ototoxicity d. Cardiotoxicity Answer: C Rationale: Vancomycin may cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. Ototoxicity results in damage to the auditory or vestibular branch of cranial nerve VIII. Such damage can result in permanent hearing loss (auditory branch) or temporary or permanent loss of balance (vestibular branch). 9) A patient is receiving gentamicin therapy: 100 mg IV at 0800, 1600, and 2400. At 0730, the nurse is informed that peak and trough levels need to be drawn. When is the best time to obtain the peak level? a. 0800 b. 0900 c. 1600 d. 2330 Answer: B Rationale: Blood should be drawn 45 to 60 minutes after drug has been administered for peak levels and minutes before next drug dosing for trough levels. 10) When teaching a patient about trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ), the nurse gives highest priority to teaching the patient to: a. Increase fluid intake b. Report signs of ringing in the ears or loss of hearing c. Expect the color of their urine to change to a reddish orange d. Take this drug with dairy products or antacids to protect the stomach Answer: A Rationale: Fluid intake should be increased to at least 2000 mL/day when taking sulfonamides to prevent crystalluria. Ototoxicity is not a common adverse effect of sulfonamides. The urine will not change colors. Dairy products or antacids should not be taken at the same time as sulfonamides because they decrease absorption. 11) A patient has been prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ). The nurse realizes that this drug is most likely used to treat which condition? a. Gonorrhea b. Rickettsial infection c. Chlamydial infection d. Urinary tract infection Answer: D Rationale: TMP-SMZ is used to treat urinary tract infections, otitis media, bronchitis, pneumonia, rheumatic fever, and burns. It does not treat gonorrhea, rickettsial or chlamydial infections. 12) A patient is ordered to receive cotrimoxazol/TMP-SMZ (Bactrim). This medication is a combination of two medications that are: a. Antagonistic b. Additive c. Synergistic d. Contraindicated Answer: C Rationale: A synergistic effect results in increasing the desired drug response. 13) Which statement about sulfonamide therapy is true? a. When used with sulfonylureas, sulfonamides decrease the hypoglycemic effect. b. When sulfonamides are used with warfarin, the anticoagulant effect is decreased. c. Sulfonamides must be taken with antacids to prevent gastric ulceration. d. Patients on sulfonamide therapy need to increase their fluid intake. Answer: D Rationale: Patients taking sulfonamides need to drink several quarts of fluid daily to avoid the complication of crystalluria. These drugs increase the hypoglycemic effect of sulfonylureas, increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin, and should not be taken with antacids because antacids decrease the absorption rate of the drug. 14) A patient is diagnosed with a Candida infection in the mouth. The nurse anticipates that the patient will be treated with: a. Metronidazole (Flagyl) b. Amphotericin B (Fungizone) c. Isoniazid (INH) d. Nystatin (Mycostatin) Answer: D Rationale: Nystatin in oral suspension is commonly used to treat Candida infection in the mouth. 15) The nurse is aware that most patients receiving metronidazole (Flagyl) are being treated for infections of the: a. Urinary tract b. Gastrointestinal system c. Integumentary system d. Reproductive system Answer: B Rationale: Metronidazole (Flagyl) acts by impairing DNA function of susceptible bacteria. This drug is used primarily to treat various disorders associated with organisms in the GI tract. It is prescribed to treat intestinal amebiasis, trichomoniasis, inflammatory bowel disease, anaerobic infections, and bacterial vaginosis and is used as perioperative prophylaxis (prevention of infection) in colorectal surgery. 16) Which drug is associated with disulfiram reaction? a. Atovaquone (Mepron) b. Streptomycin c. Metronidazole (Flagyl) d. Ampheritocin B Answer: C Rationale: The patient taking metronidazole should avoid alcohol and alcohol-containing medications for at least 48 hours after treatment is completed. Drug interaction with alcohol may produce a disulfiram reaction (facial flushing, severe headache, tachycardia, palpitations, hypotension, dyspnea, sweating, slurred speech, abdominal cramps, nausea, and vomiting). 17) When caring for a patient receiving amphotericin B, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for the development of: a. Hypokalemia b. Hypernatremia c. Hypocalcemia d. Hypermagnesemia Answer: A Rationale: Patients taking amphoterocin B should be assessed for the development of hypokalemia. 18) Which nursing intervention is the priority when a patient is receiving antiviral agents? a. Promoting hydration b. Enhancing bowel function c. Increasing tidal volume d. Promoting circulation Answer: A Rationale: Antiviral drugs can affect renal function. Patients taking antiviral drugs should be advised to maintain adequate fluid intake to ensure sufficient hydration for drug therapy and to increase urine output. 19) A patient treated with acyclovir (Zovirax) for genital herpes should be instructed that: a. Breast cancer is more common in patients with a history of genital herpes. b. Antiviral medications provide a cure for genital herpes. c. Oral hygiene should be performed several times a day. d. The medication must be taken on an empty stomach. Answer: C Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia can occur with prolonged use of antiviral drugs. Cervical cancer is more prevalent in women with genital herpes; acyclovir (Zovirax) does not cure the virus but rather interferes with viral synthesis of DNA, and it can be taken with food. 20) Before administration of the influenza vaccine to a patient, it is most important for the nurse to ask the patient if they are allergic to: a. Peanuts b. Eggs c. Penicillin d. Lidocaine Answer: B Rationale: Eggs are used to produce the flu vaccine; therefore, any allergies to eggs should be determined before flu vaccine is administered to the patient. 21) A female patient has been diagnosed with a lower urinary tract infection caused by E. Coli. The patient has been prescribed Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin). Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient about Nitrofurantoin therapy? a. Take the medication with an antacid b. Tell the patient to inform the healthcare provider immediately if her urine turns brown. c. Warn patient not to drive a motor vehicle d. Teach patient to crush tablets and open capsules to facilitate absorption of the drug Answer: C Rationale: Warn patient not to drive a motor vehicle or operate dangerous machinery; drug may cause drowsiness. Encourage patient to avoid antacids because they interfere with drug absorption. Alert patient that urine may turn a harmless brown color. The patient should be taught not to crush tablets or open capsules. 22) A day later, the patient is ordered Phenazopyridine HCL (Pyridium). The most likely rationale for administration of this agent is: a. Treatment of the bacterial infection b. Increase of bladder tone c. Relief of urinary pain and burning d. Increase of urinary output