NURS-6630N WEEK 11 FINAL EXAM WITH COMPLETE AND VERIFIED ANSWERS GRADED A+

Question 1 0 out of 1 points A patient diagnosed with obsessive compulsive disorder has been taking a high-dose SSRI and is participating in therapy twice a week. He reports an inability to carry out responsibilities due to consistent interferences of his obsessions and compulsions. The PMHNP knows that the next step would be which of the following? Selected Answer: B. Decrease his SSRI and add an MAOI. • Question 2 0 out of 1 points Which statement best describes a pharmacological approach to treating patients for impulsive aggression? Selected Answer: B. Atypical antipsychotics can increase subcortical dopaminergic stimulation. NURS 6630 Final Exam Latest 2023 Latest update • Question 3 0 out of 1 points The PMHNP evaluates a patient presenting with symptoms of dementia. Before the PMHNP considers treatment options, the patient must be assessed for other possible causes of dementia. Which of the following answers addresses both possible other causes of dementia and a rational treatment option for Dementia? Selected Answer: B. Possible other causes: hypothyroidism, adrenal insufficiency, hyperparathyroidism Possible treatment option: donepezil • Question 4 1 out of 1 points An 80-year-old female patient diagnosed with Stage II Alzheimer’s has a history of irritable bowel syndrome. Which cholinergic drug may be the best choice for treatment given the patient’s gastrointestinal problems?