Hesi a2 entrance exam Comprising of all sections 2023/24 latest update

Hesi a2 entrance exam Comprising of all sections 2023/24 latest update For any assistance email me @ Critical thinking 1. The Patient: A 65-year- old male. The Situation: The family brings the patient to the emergency room because he just took an entire bottle of pills. The Question: What action should the nurse take first? Answer – Determine the patient’s level of consciousness. 2. The Patient: An 80 year-old male who has used continuous oxygen for the past three years. The Situation: While making a home visit, the wife tells the nurse that her husband was doing well on 2 litres of oxygen per minute until late last night when he developed severe shortness of breath on the way to the bathroom. The Question: What action should the nurse take first? Answer – Assess the patient’s oxygen saturation by pulse oximeter. 3. The Patient: A 41-year-old male. The Situation: The patient is complaining of severe stomach pain and states that he has been “vomiting all the time.” The Question: What should the nurse do first? Answer – Administer a prescribed pain medication. 4. The Patient: The wife of a wealthy owner of the town’s bank. The Situation: The patient and her husband arrive on the unit. While orienting the patient to the hospital room, the nurse notices that the patient has placed a large amount of cash and some expensive earrings in the drawer of the bedside table. The Question: What is the best action for the nurse to take? Answer – Advise the patient to have her husband take the items home when he leaves. 5. The Patient: A 45-year-old female who is 5’ 2” tall, weighs 200 pounds, and has smoked since age 21. The Situation: The patient comes to the clinic with a complaint of “leg pain.” The Question: It is most important for the nurse to obtain information about which previous occurrence? Answer – A previous blood clot in the leg. 6. The Patient: A 61-year-old female. The Situation: The patient has a fever of unknown origin. The nurse administered a fever-reducing medication 30 minutes ago. At this time there has been no decrease in the patient’s fever. The Question: What action would be best for the nurse to take? Answer – Sponge the patient with cool water. 7. The Patient: A 70-year-old male who is relatively healthy. The Situation: A liquid mediation is prescribed for this patient. The Question: Prior to administering the prescribed medication, what intervention has the highest priority? Answer – Determine if the patient is allergic to the medication. 8. The Patient: A fifty-eight-year-old female. The Situation: While the nurse is offering the patient her morning medications, she tells the nurse that she does not recall ever taking a pill that was pink-colored. The Question: What should the nurse do in response to this patient’s comment? Answer – Withhold the mediation until the patient’s prescription is verify. 9. The Patients: 1. A 63-year-old with a burn on the left lower leg who is complaining of pain. 2. A 45-year-old with pneumonia, complaining of shortness of breath. 3. A 31-year-old with abdominal pain who has just vomited blood. 4. An 88-year-old who has right-sided paralysis and wants to be helped to the bathroom immediately. The Situation: The nurse is caring for these patients. The Question: Who should the nurse see first? Answer – The 45-years old with pneumonia and shortness of breath. 10. The Patients: 1. A 13-year-old female with a kidney infection who reports that there is “lots of blood” in her urine. 2. An 18-year-old male with acute alcohol poisoning who is seeing “bugs on the walls.” 3. A 21-year-old female with inflammatory bowel disease who has soaked a dressing three hours after surgery. 4. A 25-year old male who is sobbing in his room after being told that he has testicular cancer. The Situation: The nurse is caring for these four patients. The Question: Who should the nurse see first? Answer – The 21-years old who is three hours postoperative and has a soaked dressing. 11. The Patients: 1. A 42-year-old with diabetes who is blind and is asking to get up and moved to a chair. 2. An 88-year-old with lower body paralysis who wants to be turned in bed. 3. A 17-year-old with asthma who smokes and has been in the bathroom for 30 minutes. 4. A 55-year-old with cardiac disease who tells the nurse, “Get the TV fixed or I am leaving this place.” The Situation: The nurse is caring for these four patients. The Question: Which patient should the nurse see first? Answer – The 17-year old with asthma who may be smoking in the bathroom. 12. The Patient: An elderly female accompanied by her middle-aged son. The Situation: The patient is being discharged after 15-day stay on the medical unit, and the son offers the nurse a box of candy as a gesture of thanks for caring for his mother. The Question: What should the nurse do in response to the offer of this gift? Answer – Sincerely thank the son, and share the candy with all staff member on the unit. 13. The Patient: A 25-year-old female who has smoked since age 12. The Situation: The patient is complaining of “skipped heart beats.” The Question: Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide this patient? Answer – Call for assistance if she feels weak or dizzy when getting out of bed. 14. The Patient: A frail 88-year-old male who has recently become slightly confused. The Situation: The nurse is making a home visit and assesses the safety features of the home environment. The Question: Which suggestion would be most important for the nurse to provide the family? Answer – Eliminate any throw rugs from floor. 15. The Patient: A 55-year-old female with a family history of hypertension. The Situation: The patient is concerned about her health and states, “I have had severe headaches for the last six months. I think I might have high blood pressure.” The nurse determines that the woman’s blood pressure is 138/86 (high normal). The Question: What action would be best for the nurse to take? Answer – Ask the patient about the frequency, timing and quality of her headaches. 16. The Patient: A 35-year-old female with a history of asthma. The Situation: The patient has been using a steroid inhaler because she is short of breath. However, she states that her shortness of breath is “no better.”The Question: What is the most important information for the nurse to obtain? Answer – Method of using the inhaler. 17. The Patient: An older confused male. The Situation: At 3 a.m. the patient, who thinks he is in the bathroom, defecates in the bed. The bed needs to be changed. However, there are no bed sheets on the nursing unit. The Question: What action should the nurse take first? Answer – Ask a nursing assistant to go to another unit and borrow linen. 18. The Patient: A 25-year-old female hospitalized for anorexia. The Situation: The charge nurse denies the patient permission to pass dinner trays. The Question: What is the most important reason for the nurse to deny this anorexic patient permission to pass the dinner trays? Answer – Treatment protocol for anorexics mandates that they avoid preoccupation with food. 19. The Patient: A 75-year-old male who had a heart attack four years ago. The Situation: The patient tells the nurse, “Even though I stopped smoking 10 years ago, I have a terrible cough.” The Question: What action should the nurse take first? Answer – Auscultate all lung fields 20. The Patient: A 70-year-old man dying of prostate cancer. The Situation: Nurse “A,” who is charge of a medical unit, notices that a dying patient continues to moan in pain after receiving intravenous injections of morphins whenever Nurse “B” is caring for him. Nurse “A” suspects that Nurse “B” may be diluting the patient’s dose and taking the morphine to feed an addiction. The Question: What should Nurse “A” do in this situation? Answer – Notify the shift supervisor and unit director of the circumstances before taking action 21. The Patient: A 29-year-old male. The Situation: A lower leg cast was applied yesterday to a fractured leg. Today the patient tells the nurse that he is in “terrible pain.” The Question: Which action is most important for the nurse to take? Answer – Check the patient’s toes for adequate circulation. 22. The Patient: A 54-year-old male who weighs 275 pounds. He is 5’ 10” tall and has many family members who have died of heart disease.The Situation: He comes to the clinic stating that he has had several episodes of “chest pain” in the last week. The Question: What is the most important action for the nurse to take? Answer – Ask the patient to describe the chest pain. 23. The Patient: A 7-year-old child. The Situation: A nurse arrives with an injection containing preoperative sedation that must be given to the child now. The child asks the nurse if the shot will hurt. The Question: What response should the nurse offer to this child? Answer – “Yes, but it won’t last very long and soon you will be sleepy” 24. The Patient: A 35-year-old female. The Situation: The patient is admitted with a diagnosis of abdominal pain and diarrhea. The Question: Which action should the nurse take first? Answer – Initiate Intravenous fluids. 25. The Patient: A 51-year-old male. The Situation: The patient is pale, has dark circles under his eyes, and responds to questions with a soft, low voice. He tells the nurse that he has not slept well for months, but denies any type of pain. The Question: What information is most important for the nurse to obtain? Answer – The existence of a significant life in the last year that has caused anxiety. 26. The Patient: A 19-year-old male who has previously been healthy. The Situation: The patient complains that he is losing weight despite “eating all the time.” The Question: Considering this patient’s age and complaint, which diagnostic test is likely to provide the most important information? Answer – A fingerstick for blood sugar level. 27. The Patient: An adult with diabetes mellitus who was just given a morning does of insulin which lowers the blood sugar. The Situation: The patient’s breakfast tray arrives, and the nurse notices that the pancake syrup and sugar packets have not been substituted with products containing artificial sweeteners.The Question: What should the nurse do first in this situation? Answer – Remove foods containing sugar and offer sugar substitutes. 28. The Patient: A terminally ill male. The Situation: Nurse “A” and an unidentified woman ride the elevator to the fifth floor, Nurse “B” joins them on the elevator and exclaims that a code has just been called on a male patient on the fifth floor, and he is not expected to live. The Question: What should Nurse “A” do in this situation? Answer – Tell Nurse B stop discussing the client’s situation in a public place. 29. The Patient: An elderly confused female in a semi-private room on a hospital medical unit. The Situation: The patient is yelling loudly at 3:30a.m. and awakens her roommate, who calls the nurse for assistance. The Question: What should the nurse do first in this situation? Answer – Assess the confused patient for causes of her behaviour. 30. The Patient: A 75-year-old male. The Situation: The family brings the patient to the emergency room because they witnessed him have a seizure. The patient is hallucinating, and loudly cries out to the nurse, “Get those dogs out of here!” The nurse places the patient in a cubicle where he can be seen from the nurse’s station. The Question: What action would be best for the nurse to take? Answer – Ask the family to remain with the patient. CRITICAL THINKING 1. A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the nurse implement?Give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics. 2. The nurse is administering medications through a nasogastric tube (NGT) which is connected to suction. After ensuring correct tube placement, what action should the nurse take next? Flush the tube with water. 3. An elderly client with a fractured left hip is on strict bedrest. Which nursing measure is essential to the client's nursing care? Gently lift the client when moving into a desired position. 4. When assessing a client with wrist restraints, the nurse observes that the fingers on the right hand are blue. What action should the nurse implement first? Loosen the right wrist restraint. 5. The nurse is assessing the nutritional status of several clients. Which client has the greatest nutritional need for additional intake of protein? A lactating woman nursing her 3-day-old infant. 6. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement? Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300. 7. While instructing a male client's wife in the performance of passive range-of-motion exercises to his contracted shoulder, the nurse observes that she is holding his arm above and below the elbow. What nursing action should the nurse implement? Acknowledge that she is supporting the arm correctly. 8. What is the most important reason for starting intravenous infusions in the upper extremities rather than the lower extremities of adults? A decreased flow rate could result in the formation of a thrombosis. 9. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking a client's blood pressure with a cuff that is too small, but the blood pressure reading obtained is within the client's usual range. What action is most important for the nurse to implement? Reassess the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff. 10. Twenty minutes after beginning a heat application, the client states that the heating pad no longer feels warm enough. What is the best response by the nurse? The body's receptors adapt over time as they are exposed to heat. 11. The nurse is instructing a client with high cholesterol about diet and life style modification. What comment from the client indicates that the teaching has been effective? I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week. 12. The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the nurse to help them determine the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this client? Move the chair parallel to the right side of the bed, and stand the client on the right foot. 13. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) places a client in a left lateral position prior to administering a soap suds enema. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP? Reposition in a Sim's position with the client's weight on the anterior ilium. 14. A client who is a Jehovah's Witness is admitted to the nursing unit. Which concern should the nurse have for planning care in terms of the client's beliefs? Blood transfusions are forbidden. 15. The nurse observes that a male client has removed the covering from an ice pack applied to his knee. What action should the nurse take first? Observe the appearance of the skin under the ice pack. 16. A hospitalized male client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small-bore tubeand a continuous pump infusion. He reports that he had a bad bout of severe coughing a few minutes ago, but feels fine now. What action is best for the nurse to take? After clearing the tube with 30 ml of air, check the pH of fluid withdrawn from the tube. 17. A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since, at the time of discharge, timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow? 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. 18. A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 ml of normal saline over 4 hours. At what rate should the nurse set the client's intravenous infusion pump? To calculate this problem correctly, remember that the dose of KCl is not used in the calculation. 250 ml/4 hours = 63 ml/hour. 19. An obese male client discusses with the nurse his plans to begin a long-term weight loss regimen. In addition to dietary changes, he plans to begin an intensive aerobic exercise program 3 to 4 times a week and to take stress management classes. After praising the client for his decision, which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide? Be sure to have a complete physical examination before beginning your planned exercise program. 20. The nurse is teaching a client proper use of an inhaler. When should the client administer the inhaler-delivered medication to demonstrate correct use of the inhaler? During the inhalation. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement when donning sterile gloves? Keep gloved hands above the elbows. 21. A client with chronic renal failure selects a scrambled egg for his breakfast. What action should the nurse take? Commend the client for selecting a high biologic value protein. 22. A client who is 5' 5" tall and weighs 200 pounds is scheduled for surgery the next day. What question is most important for the nurse to include during the preoperative assessment? What vitamin and mineral supplements do you take? 23. During the initial morning assessment, a male client denies dysuria but reports that his urine appears dark amber. Which intervention should the nurse implement? Encourage additional oral intake of juices and water. 24. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement for a male client who is experiencing urinary retention? Assess for bladder distention. 25. A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match. 26. Which snack food is best for the nurse to provide a client with myasthenia gravis who is at risk for altered nutritional status? Chocolate pudding. 27. The nurse is evaluating client learning about a low-sodium diet. Selection of which meal would indicate to the nurse that this client understands the dietary restrictions Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream. 28. Which nutritional assessment data should the nurse collect to best reflect total muscle mass in an adolescent? Upper arm circumference. 29. An elderly resident of a long-term care facility is no longer able to perform self-care and is becoming progressively weaker. The resident previously requested that no resuscitative efforts be performed, and the family requests hospice care. What action should the nurse implement first? Notify the healthcare provider of the family's request. After completing an assessment and determining that a client has a problem, which action should the nurse perform next? Determine the etiology of the problem. An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which nurse is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment? The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred. A postoperative client will need to perform daily dressing changes after discharge. Which outcome statement best demonstrates the client's readiness to manage his wound care after discharge? The client demonstrates the wound care procedure correctly. When evaluating a client's plan of care, the nurse determines that a desired outcome was not achieved. Which action will the nurse implement first? Note which actions were not implemented. When assisting an 82-year-old client to ambulate, it is important for the nurse to realize that the center of gravity for an elderly person is the Upper torso. In developing a plan of care for a client with dementia, the nurse should remember that confusion in the elderly often follows relocation to new surroundings. 37. An elderly male client who suffered a cerebral vascular accident is receiving tube feedings via a gastrostomy tube. The nurse knows that the best position for this client during administration of the feedings is Fowler's. 38. The nurse notices that the mother a 9-year-old Vietnamese child always looks at the floor when she talks to the nurse. What action should the nurse take? Continue asking the mother questions about the child. 39. When conducting an admission assessment, the nurse should ask the client about the use of complimentary healing practices. Which statement is accurate regarding the use of these practices? Many complimentary healing practices can be used in conjunction with conventional practices. 40. A young mother of three children complains of increased anxiety during her annual physical exam. What information should the nurse obtain first? Nutritional history. 41. Three days following surgery, a male client observes his colostomy for the first time. He becomes quite upset and tells the nurse that it is much bigger than he expected. What is the best response by the nurse? Instruct the client that the stoma will become smaller when the initial swelling diminishes. 42. At the time of the first dressing change, the client refuses to look at her mastectomy incision. The nurse tells the client that the incision is healing well, but the client refuses to talk about it. What would be an appropriate response to this client's silence? It is OK if you don't want to talk about your surgery. I will be available when you are ready. 43. The nurse witnesses the signature of a client who has signed an informed consent. Which statement best explains this nursing responsibility? The client voluntarily signed the form. 44. The nurse assigns a UAP to obtain vital signs from a very anxious client. What instructions should the nurse give the UAP? Report the results of the vital signs to the nurse. 45. An adult male client with a history of hypertension tells the nurse that he is tired of taking antihypertensive medications and is going to try spiritual meditation instead. What should be the nurse's first response? It is important that you continue your medication while learning to meditate. 46. The nurse is completing a mental assessment for a client who is demonstrating slow thought processes, personality changes, and emotional lability. Which area of the brain controls these neuro--cognitive functions? Frontal lobe. 47. A male client tells the nurse that he does not know where he is or what year it is. What data should the nurse document that is most accurate? is disoriented to place and time. 48. An African-American grandmother tells the nurse that her 4-year-old grandson is suffering with "miseries." Based on this statement, which focused assessment should the nurse conduct? Inquire about the source and type of pain. 49. The nurse notices that the Hispanic parents of a toddler who returns from surgery offer the child only the broth that comes on the clear liquid tray. Other liquids, including gelatin, popsicles, and juices, remain untouched. What explanation is most appropriate for this behavior? Hot remedies restore balance after surgery, which is considered a "cold" condition. 50. During a physical assessment, a female client begins to cry. Which action is best for the nurse to take? Acknowledge the client's distress and tell her it is all right to cry. 51. A female client asks the nurse to find someone who can translate into her native language her concerns about a treatment. Which action should the nurse take? Request and document the name of the certified translator. 52. The nurse is teaching a client with numerous allergies how to avoid allergens. Which instruction should be included in this teaching plan? Avoid any types of sprays, powders, and perfumes. HESI ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY 30 questions that I did! 1. The pulse point located behind the knee is palpated over which artery? Popliteal 2. Part of the body Facing forward- Anterior 3. ……ABCD of cancer? Melanoma {The most dangerous form of skin cancer} 4. Which of the following statements best describe endocrine glands? They secrete chemicals into the blood 5. Which organ is part of both the male reproductive system & the urinary system? Urethra 6. Anaerobic respiration can lead to a burning sensation caused by which molecule? Lactic acid 7. When assessing a female client who describes herself as a vegetarian in the nurse notes that she has an unusual skin color. The nurse should ask the client if she has eaten large amount of: carrot and squash 8. Which hand position describes an anatomical position of a person who is standing erect with feet forward? Palms of the hand facing anteriorly 9. What are like cells grouped together called? A tissue 10. What type of synovial joint is the elbow? Hinge 11. Which structure is a ball and socket joint? Shoulder 12. What are fingerprints made of? Friction Ridges 13. What are like cells grouped together called? Tissue 14. Which is the largest chamber of the heart? Left Ventricle 15. Membrane that lines body cavities that open the exterior of the body is mucous membrane (inside of the body cavity- serous membrane) 16. Which muscle of the quadriceps femoris group lies on the slide surface of the lower extremity? Vastus lateralis 17. Which structure is located on the sternum? Xiphoid process 18. What occurs when the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated? Increased Cardiac output 19. Where does digestion begin in the digestive system? Oral cavity/Mouth 20. Which cell structure regulates the transportation of substances in and out the cell? Cell membrane 21. The Malleus, Incus, and Stapes are located in which part of the body? Ear 22. What is the function of the thrombocytes (platelets)? Play role in blood clotting 23. What is the response of cells in the collecting tubules in the nephrons when antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is secreted? Water is reabsorbed from the urinary filtrate 24. What is the function of Golgi body/apparatus in the human cell? Process protein secretion. synthesize carbs and glycoproteins 25. 4 steps in Bone formation: Hematoma (inflammation)-callus formation-ossification- remodeling. 26. Which lobe of the brain is responsible for auditory functioning? Temporal lobe 27. When water molecules move across cell membrane from high to low concentration this process is called? Osmosis 28. Facilitates the recognition of genetic code on macromolecules? DNA 29. What plane divides the body from left to right? Sagittal plane 30. Aqueous humor is watery fluid in which part of the body? Eye A&P version 1 and 2 1. What are the chemical substances that prevent a sharp change in the pH of a fluid when an acid or a base is added to it? Buffer 2. What do T-lymphocytes do? Defend the body against microbes 3. Which structure produces T-lymphocytes? Thymus 4. Which structure produces B-lymphocytes? Red bone marrow 5. What is the function of Eustachian tube? Equilibrates pressure between the middle ear and external environment 6. What physiological response occurs when epinephrine and non-ephedrine- Blood is directed toward the heart, skeletal muscles and brain. 7. Which of the following is a structure found in the upper respiratory system? Pharynx(throat). It includes nose (nostrils), nasal cavity, mouth, and larynx (voice box). The structure in the lower RS includes: Trachea, primary bronchi and lungs. 8. Calcaneus is located in what part of the body? Foot 9. Dorsiflexion plantar flexion are types of joint movement that are associated with which part of the body? Foot 10. A person who has damage to their ulnar nerve will have decreased sensation in which area? Arm – inability to abduct hands and fingers 11. The ankle is distal to the knee 12. Posterior means what part of the body? The back 13. Which bones are located in the forearm? Ulna and Radius 14. Which bone dose not articulate with any other bone? Hyoid – is a U-shape bone in the neck that supports the tongue 15. Which of the following elements is necessary for muscle contraction? Calcium 16. Diet is important because bone are storage places for? Calcium and phosphorous 17. What female reproductive organ produces oocytes, estrogen, progesterone? Ovaries 18. Which layer of the cutaneous membrane are nerve ending located- Dermis {Where is the nerve ending close to the skin? Dermis} 19. Which bones are formed first by intramembrous ossification? Flat bones of skull 20. Ligaments provides with connection? Bone to bone (Tendon -muscle to bone) 21. Sprain occurs when there is a tear in which structure? Ligament muscle/ankle/shoulder 22. Why are tendons and ligament most likely to be slow in healing following an injury? Lack of blood supply/because these connective tissues are avascular. 23. Compact tissue with Haversian canals is classified as what type of tissue? Bone 24. What structure conducts urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder? (The tube between kidney and urinary bladder) Ureter 25. As part of the negative feedback system, which type of cell is stimulated to resorb bone matrix in response to a decrease in calcium in the blood? Osteoclasts 26. Sweat on the skin's surface cools the body through which process? Evaporation 27. A Client has large pituitary tumor. The nurse knows that this tumor exists in which part of the body? Head /Client has large pituitary tumor what part of the body does this effect? Head hurt, sickness, low blood pressure 28. Which anatomical structure houses the malleus, incus, and stapes? Skull ear 29. Ceruminous glands secrete Ear wax/ Cerumen 30. What is the function of the Sebaceous gland? To produce sebum or oil 31. The nurse explains to a client that the stomach is lined by which type of membrane? Mucous {The respiratory system is lined with a mucous membrane that secret mucus} 32. The mediastinum is located within which cavity? Thoracic 33. What effects do serotonin has on neurotransmitters? Involved with mood, sleep, appetite and anxiety 34. What does antidiuretic hormone act on? helps to control blood pressure by acting on the kidneys and the blood vessels. /Regulates and balances the amount of water in the body 35. The occipital region is located in which part of the body? Head (at the back)/ lower part of the cranium 36. In white blood cells what contributes to phagocytosis? Macrophages, neutrophils 37. Thrombocytes (platelets) smallest type of blood cell important for blood clotting. When bleeding occurs it swell, clump together and form sticky plug that helps stop the bleeding. 38. Which blood element carries oxygen- Erythrocytes (Red blood cells) 39. Which structure carries oxygen to the cells? Hemoglobin 40. Blood cell formation – Hemopoiesis {Blood cells is also called hematopoietic cell, hemocyte or hematocyte. The three main types of blood cells are Platelets (thrombocytes), Red blood cells (erythrocytes) and White blood cells (leukocytes) - basophil, neutrophil, eosinophil, lymphocytes and monocytes}. 41. Which gland is commonly known as the "Master Gland"? Pituitary Gland 42. What epidermal derivative is involved in temperature homeostasis? Eccrine gland- regulates temperature 43. Which statement are true about bone? Osteoblast, epiphyseal, diaphysis. 44. What internal structure of the ear is concerned with hearing? Cochlea 45. Which structure of the gastrointestinal tract controls the movement of content from small intestine to the large intestine? Ileocecal valve 46. What are the divisional regions of the large intestine (colon)? Cecum, transverse colon, sigmoid colon. (cecum-ascending-transverse-descending-sigmoid colons) 47. Where in the human body are nutrients absorbed? Small intestine (Small intestine is made up of three segment – Duodenum, Jejunum, and ileum). 48. Ossification begins during what? Embryonic development 49. Fertilization occurs in the? Oviduct 50. Fertilization of an ovum occurs in which anatomical structure? Fallopian tubes 51. Which term is used to describe the waist bones/area? Carpal 52. An over-production of cerumen (earwax) can accumulate in which area? External ear canals 53. The mitral value is located between which two structures? Left ventricle & Left atrium (Tricuspid – right ventricle and right atrium) 54. The olfactory nerves are associate in which sense? Smell 55. Which of the special senses respond to chemical? Taste and olfaction 56. Which vessel brings blood from the lungs to the heart? Pulmonary vein 57. What vessel carries blood from the body to the heart? Vena cava 58. Which hormone(s) is/are produced by the ovaries? Estrogen & progesterone (Men – Estrogen and testosterone) 59. Two principles divisions that makeup nervous system? Central Nervous System (CNS) and Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) 60. The orthopedic surgeon informs you that you have broken the distal region of the humerus. What area is he describing? Epiphysis 61. Which term is used to describe movement of the arms and legs away from midline of the body? Abduction- arm away from the body (Adduction- arm towards the body’s midline) 62. Which part of the body do you check for carotid pulse- Carotid Artery. Structure provides a pulse reading in the neck? Carotid Artery 63. What is the primary function of the hemoglobin (blood)? Carry oxygen 64. What stimulates the chemoreceptors to function? rise in CO2; Fall in O2 (increase in blood pressure) 65. Which condition causes a client to say "I can't see far away"? Nearsightedness 66. What organ produces insulin? Pancreas 67. When drawing blood from antecubital region which blood vessel is used to obtain blood? a) Ulnar vein b) Radial artery c) Axillary artery d) Brachial vein (Median cubital) 68. What hormone induces growth of pubic and axillary hair at puberty? Testosterone and estrogen 69. Increase in rate of depth of breath results in what blood PH change? Alkalosis 70. What is the function of the hypothalamus? (Regulate body temperature) Regulate function of body, balance and thermoregulatory 71. The passive movement of molecules or particles along a concentrated gradient or from a region of higher concentration to a lower concentration is called Diffusion / Filtration is the process by which water and solutes are forced through a membrane or capillary wall by fluid or hydrostatic pressure 72. Transverse plane is a cross section of the body. Coronal – separates back and front} 73. What part of the body is the lower back? Lumbar vertebrae 74. High levels of which ion would most likely result in a cardiac arrest? Potassium 75. What blood vessel perfuses the kidney? Renal vein 76. The skin is the largest organ of the body. What gives the skin its color? Melanin 77. What is the outer most protective layer of the skin? Epidermis (the inner layer of the skin is dermis- composed of fibrous connective tissue with blood vessels, sensory nerve endings, hair follicles and glands) 78. The organ of corti is located in? Ear 79. The rough endoplasmic reticulum functions in the human cell to? Synthesize proteins Function of rough ER- protein synthesis, membrane production. Smooth ER synthesize lipids and steroids, regulate calcium concentration 80. Tissue repair is enhanced by a diet high in? Protein 81. What is the definition of chyme? partly digested food! The result of action by the stomach. (the thick, wet mass of partly digested food that leaves the stomach) 82. What are hormones? chemical messengers secreted by endocrine glands that controls or coordinates the activities of other tissues. 83. What cellular process helps to move debris and mucous through the lining of tubules? Cilia (An epithelial cell that other goes circle of movement is cilia) 84. Which is a hollow organ? Gall bladder (heart, stomach) 85. Which muscle is included in the quadriceps femoris group? Rectus femoris, Vastus lateralis, Vastus medialis, Vastus intermedius 86. Which of the following location would the urinary bladder & internal reproductive organ be found? Pelvic region/cavity 87. Which part of the brain attaches to spinal cord? Medulla oblongata 88. Which structure is responsible for normal respiratory function? Medulla oblongata – it controls breathing Cerebrum – associated with movement and sensory input Cerebellum- responsible for muscle / muscular co-ordination Medulla oblongata- controls many vital functions such as respiration and heartbeat/rate 89. T4 is controlled by what? Thyroid 90. What gland is located on the anterior surface of the trachea? Thyroid Gland 91. Function of ADH - reabsorption of water 92. Which hormone is produced by the posterior pituitary gland? ADH and Oxytocin 93. Which hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary gland? Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) {also includes – TSH, LH, ACTH, Growth Hormone and PRL} 94. What female hormone stimulate the development of Graafian follicles? FSH 95. What occurs when the sympathetic nervous system is stimulation is increased? Blood pressure rises, goose bumps 96. What part of the body is the buttock- dorsal. / The buttock is on which surface of the body? posterior body surface 97. The esophagus is located in which body cavity? Thoracic 98. The tympanic membrane is located between which structures? External auditory canal and middle ear (tympanic membrane -ear drum, it is a thin membrane that separates the outer (external) ear from the middle ear) 99. What is the end result of meiosis? 23 chromosomes {Mitosis – cell division that produces two identical daughters (process in which DNA is duplicated); Mitosis is necessary for growth and repair/ Meiosis - cell division that takes place in the gonads (the ovaries and testes), chromosomes number reduces from 4623}. 100. How many days is the average menstrual cycle? 28 days 101. Urinary system in the human body primary task is to? Expel waste 102. What is the function of the phrenic nerve? Innervates the diaphragm The phrenic nerve (cervical plexus) is a nerve that originates in the neck (C3-C5) and passes down between the lung and the heart to reach the diaphragm. It is important for breathing, as it passes motor information to the diaphragm and receives sensory information from it, there are two phrenic nerves, a left and a right one. 103. What does vitamin D do to the skin? Vitamin D contributes to skin cell growth, repair, and metabolism. It optimizes the skin’s immune system and help destroy free radicals that can cause premature aging. Vitamin D regulates two important bone materials- calcium and phosphorous, which stimulates internal absorption of Ca and P to maintain healthy blood levels and build and maintain bone. Biological function of vitamin D- calcium balance, immunomodulation, regulate cell-growth, and reduces hypertension by downregulating renin production. 104. Which of the following produce progesterone to prepare the uterus for pregnancy? Corpus luteum 105. Which antibodies are found in the plasma of type A blood? Anti B 106. Which antibodies are found in the plasma of type AB blood? Neither A or B 107. What encloses the heart? Pericardium 108. Where is the tibialis anterior muscle located? Lower leg (Largest bone of the leg- Tibia, smallest bone of the leg- Fibula) 109. How many carb per gram do carbohydrates contain? 4 110. Where is the pulmonary ossification center located? Diaphysis 111. Which of the following best describes a capillary? Location for gas and nutrient exchange (nutrients and gas exchange occur in the capillaries, not veins or arteries) 112. Which one increases angle at the joint? Extensor 113. What are the four basic tissue types? Connective, Epithelium, Nervous, Muscle. 114. Order of organization of living things: Organelle, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organisms, populations, communities, ecosystem, and biosphere 115. What is the function of aldosterone in the kidneys, when it is secreted? It conserves sodium in the body 116. What does lymphatic system do? Filter lymph, remove debris. Function of lymph nodes- They filter lymph and assist the immune system in building an immune response. Lymph is a clear fluid that comes from blood plasma and exits blood vessels at capillary beds. 117. What structure of the eye picks out color? Retina 118. What is the transparent portion of the fibrous layer of the eye? Cornea 119. The basic unit of life and the building block of tissue/organism- Cell 120. The study of tissues/cells - Histology 121. What characteristic best describe dermis? Structure and strength 122. Osteoblast – cells that form compact bone 123. Broken humerus adolescent: classified as a proximal fracture or a shaft fracture. 124. The enzymes that regulates all chemical reactions within the body - Proteins 125. Hormones are chemical messengers that control the growth, differentiation, and metabolism of specific target cells. Two types- Steroid hormone and Protein hormone The main production of endocrine gland is hormones 126. Causes of ear infection in children? It is the length of the Eustachian tube. (Kids have shorter Eustachian tube). 127. Herpes is a viral infection usually characterized by? Skin eruption / Sign of Herpes? Rash 128. Function of trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles? Warm and moisten air before it enters the lungs 129. Which subdivision of autonomic nervous system operates using the neurotransmitters norepinephrine and epinephrine? Sympathetic Nervous System 130. Sensory neurons (afferent) transmit nerve impulses toward the CNS {spinal cord and brain}, Motor (efferent) neurons transmit nerve impulses away from d CNS towards the organs such as muscles, glands, &digestive organs. PNS- all other neurons in d body. 131. Axons transmit the impulse away from the cell body, while dendrites transmit the impulse towards the cell body. 132. What part of the male reproduction produce most of the semen? Seminal Vesicle 133. Produce most of the sperm- Seminiferous Tubules 134. It is very cold… shivering? What muscle is involved? Skeletal muscle Reading Comprehension Voice: What effect does your voice have on others? Does it persuade or irritate, attract or repel? One of the worst qualities is harshness. If you ever get the feeling that people are uncomfortable when you speak, it may be that your harsh tones are jarring their eardrums. your voice will sound unpleasant if it is shrill, grating, hard, piercing, brassy, too loud, or too nasal. Harsh voice qualities usually come from too much tension in the throat and jaw. Tension tightens muscles and blocks the relaxed voice tones essential to a pleasing impression. Because tension occurs in higher pitched voices, women tend to have shriller voices than men, which usually makes them less desirable public speakers, newscasters, or political candidates. 1. Which statement from the selection presents a fact rather than an opinion? A. One of the worst voice qualities is harshness. B. Harsh voice qualities usually come from too much tension in the throat and jaw. C. Your voice will sound unpleasant if it is shrill, grating, hard, piercing, brassy, too loud, or too nasal. D. Because tension occurs in higher pitched voices, women tend to have shriller voices than men, which usually makes them less desirable public speakers, newscasters, or political candidates. 2. What is stated in this paragraph? A. Some men have harsh voices. B. Relaxed people often have harsh voices. C. Women make less appealing political candidates. D. Not everyone finds a harsh voice irritating. 3. The information presented is: A. Slanted in favor of newscasters. B. Slanted against people with deep voice C. Slanted against people with piercing voices. D. Balance in its approach. 4. The author seems to: A. Prefer low pitched tones. B. Be an experienced public speaker. C. Prefer shrill, grating, and brassy voice. D. Have no particular reactions to different voices. Food: Reading Comprehension #2 Food and drink are necessary and desirable, but their abuse can cause serious physical and mental problems. Many physicians believe that overeating is one of the country's main health problems, since it places a great strain on the heart, can lead to diabetes, and often shortens the individual's life span. To fill an emotional void. people often turn to food when they are bored or lonely.Another area of concern is alcohol consumption. The results of alcohol abuse are widely publicized. The social drinker who becomes alcoholic, the drunken driver's contribution to highway death, spousal and child abuse, are all concomitant problems associated with alcohol abuse. 1. As used in the last sentence of this paragraph, the term "concomitant" means? A. Accompanying B. Quiet C.Separate D.Unpredictable 2. The information presented in this article is? A. Against eating and drinking B. Against drinking alcohol C. Against eating rich foods. D. Unbiased in its approach 3. The author's motive for writing the paragraph seems to have have been to Urge Self-Control . 4. What is implied by this paragraph? A. We should eat and drink in reasonable quantities. B. Obesity is a more serious problem than alcoholism. C. Alcohol should be banned. D. We need stronger laws to control drunk drivers. 5. The author seems to? A. Oppose drinking alcohol B. Favor a strict diet C. Oppose regulation of personal habits D. Favor moderation The Game of Bridge: Reading Comprehension #3 The ebb and flow of laughter and silence fills the room as four old friends gather to engage in a round of Bridge playing.For the beginner, Bridge can be complicated, but with time, effort, and a good teacher, even the novice can become proficient.Composed of two main parts, bidding and playing, Bridge requires the player's undivided attention. The dealer deals the entire deck of playing cards evenly between the four players, with each person receiving thirteen cards. In the bidding portion of the game, the four suits of cards in the deck are ranked highest to lowest as follows: spades, hearts, diamonds, and finally clubs. However, during play all the suits of cards are considered equals, and they go from highest to lowest from the ace being high to the two cards being low. The highest number of tricks wins. A trick is one card played by each player for a total of four. After the lead player lays down his/her card, the other players follow suit, if possible. The highest card within the four "same suit" cards played wins the trick and picks up all four cards. If a player cannot follow suit, he/she plays any card, but to make the game more interesting and challenging, one suit is named a trump suit which means that if a player plays a card from the trump suit, it always wins the trick. If two cards from the trump suit are played, the highest card within the trump suit wins the trick. Obviously the team with the most tricks wins the hand. 1. The author wants the reader to feel? A. As though the game of Bridge is too hard for novices to learn. B. Frustrated and confused about playing bridge. C. Confident and excited about learning the game of bridge D. Overwhelmed by all the rules for the games of Bridge. 2. Throughout this passage the word suit means? A. A set of clothing to be worn together B. Any of the four sets into which a deck of cards is divided. C. To be convenient or right for D. To request or appeal persistently 3. In the passage, a trick is described as? A. A special look given to your partner across the table B. A book that gives strategies on how to win a Bridge. C. A collection of one card played by each of four players. D. A specific card the dealer gives to the person to her right. 4. The passage explicitly states? A. That the highest card within the "trump" suit always wins the trick. B. The Ace card is always the lowest card. C. That there is a pile of leftover" cards that is placed in the middle of the game table. D. If a player cannot follow suit, she loses her turn to the next player. 5. The passage implies that? A. Playing bridge requires concentration. B. Bridge is an extremely easy game to play C. Bridge is only for older people The White Elephant: Reading Comprehension #4 Centuries ago, in the country of Siam, now known as Thailand, it was the custom of the rulers that displeased them by giving the offender a white elephant. Because the animal was considered to not be made to work as other elephants did, but still had to be fed hundreds of pounds of fruit and cared for in the most lavish style. The recipient could not give the elephant to anyone else, as it was the ruler, who would be greatly displeased should the recipient not receive the gift graciously or care for it in a grand style. This monetary burden could be a major liability to the recipient and in many cases they became impoverished. This is the origin of the term "white elephant" as it is used today to denote an unwanted gift. The way of gift exchange played during the holiday season is an offshoot of this. In this game, everyone brings and the gifts are exchanged by drawing numbers and picking a gift in turn. The second person can choose or steal the first one. It is all in good fun, and people enjoy giving silly gifts and "stealing" someone else. 1. How did the people regard a white elephant? A. If a village elder received a white elephant, the entire village shared in the supply of meat. B. People tried very hard not to offend the king so they would not receive a white elephant. C. White elephants were highly prized as they were very hard workers in the cane fields. D. The people of Siam vied for the honor of receiving the king's gift or a white elephant. 2. Where is Thailand"? A. Africa B. Europe C. Asia D. South America 3. What is the meaning of the word impoverished in the first paragraph? A. Honored B. Nobility C. Rich D. Financially ruined 4. Why is an unwanted gift called a white elephant? A. It is rare to get an unwanted gift. B. It is a good gift to give at the party C. Gifts are never unwanted D. Siam's rulers punished with the gift 5. What is implied by the article? A. Siam was renamed Thailand in 2000 B. People enjoy receiving gifts. C. The author dislikes parlor games D. Elephants are easy to take care of and train. The Water Cycle: Reading Comprehension #5 Water is needed to sustain practically all life functions on planet Earth. A single drop of this compound is composed of an oxygen atom that shares its electrons with each of the two hydrogen atoms. The cycle starts when precipitation, such as rain, snow, sleet, or hail, descends from the sky onto the ground. Water that is not absorbed immediately from the precipitation is known as runoff. The runoff flows across the land and collects in groundwater reservoirs, rivers, streams, and oceans. Evaporation takes place when liquid water changes into water vapor, which is a gas. Water vapor returns to the air from surface water and plants. Ultimately, condensation happens when this water vapor cools and changes back into droplets of liquid. In fact, the puffy, cotton clouds that we observe are formed by condensation. When the clouds become heavily laden with liquid droplets, precipitation ensues. 1. What is the meaning of the word composed in the first paragraph? ● Ans= To consist of 2. What is the main idea of this passage? ● Ans= The different components of the water cycle are precipitation, evaporation, and condensation. The explanation of the different components of the water cycle 3. Which statement is not a detail from the passage? ● Ans= Condensation fails to happen when water vapor cools and changes back into droplets of liquid. 4. What was the author's primary purpose for writing this essay? ● Ans= To inform the reader about the stages of the water cycle. 5. What can the reader conclude from this passage about ponds and lakes? ● Ans= They are examples of groundwater reservoirs. 6. Knowing that the cooling of water vapor results in condensation, one could conclude that Heat is/are a factor in the evaporation process. The Golden Gate Bridge: Reading Comprehension #6 Linking San Francisco to Marin County in California, the Golden Gate Bridge is one of the most famous bridges in the world. The bridge crosses over a narrow strait which connects the Pacific Ocean to San Francisco Bay. Prior to the bridge, people traveled by ferry boat across the strait. Although most people thought a bridge was necessary to expedite travel, some residents of the bay area felt the risk of building the bridge was too great. Joseph Strauss believed that nothing was impossible and dreams would never come to fruition if risks weren't taken. So he decided to gather the best and brightest builders, architects, and workers to embark on the challenge of building a bridge across the Golden Gate Strait. With safety nets in place, the construction began in 1937. Building the anchorages first, the builders then move on to the towers on each end, and then to the three-foot thick cables to support the suspension bridge. Lastly, workers labored to complete the roadway which became the most dangerous and treacherous part of the entire task. The builders had to keep the bridge balance so it wouldn't fall into the bay.Today, over sixty-five years later, the bridge remains a life-line for the people of the San Francisco Bay Area 1. The authors reason for writing this piece seems to be to A. Inform the reader B. Teach the reader C. Persuade the reader D. Entertain the reader 2. What body of water does The Golden Gate Bridge cross? A. San Francisco Bay B. Pacific Ocean C. Marin Strait D. Golden Gate Strait 3. Why was the roadway so dangerous to build? A. There weren't enough materials available to build the road B. The workers might get hit by passing cars. C. The men would fall to their deaths. D. If the road wasn't balanced, it would collapse. 4. In the passage the word embark means to: A. Put or go on board a ship B. Remove the covering from a tree C. Speak harshly to others D. Being an undertaking 5. Which part of the bridge was built first? A. Cables B. Anchorage C. Roadway Safe Driving: Reading Comprehension #7 1. What is the best meaning of the word advocate as used in the forth sentence of this paragraph? ● Ans= Supporter. 2. What is stated in this paragraph? ● Ans= Each individual's driving behavior is the key to automobile safety. 3. What is implied by this paragraph? ● Ans= Government action will not help if individual drivers do not cooperate. 4. The author seems to think that? ● Ans= All cars should be properly inspected. 5. The author's motive for writing the paragraph seems to have been to? ● Ans= Get people personally involved with traffic safety. Phobia: Reading Comprehension #8 1. What does the author want the reader to know about phobia? ● Ans= That phobia is debilitating. 2. According to the passage, which of the following are types of phobias? ● Ans= Social phobias, panic disorder, anxiety phobia 3. The passage says that having fear is normal and good, according to the passage, why is having a phobia not normal and good because of phobia? ● Ans= Are extreme and unreasonable. 4. What are the physical ailments that phobia causes? ● Ans= Ulcers and hypertension (high blood pressure). 5. The author wants to conclude that: ● Ans= People can gain control or deal with phobia. 6. Which one is not a solution to phobia? ● Ans= Taking medications. Math section A nurse is reviewing the daily intake and output (I&O) of a patient consuming a clear diet. The drainage bag denotes a total of 1,500 mL for the past 24 hours. The total intake is: 3 6oz cups of coffee 1 16-oz serving of clear soup 2 pints of water consumed throughout the day How much is the deficit in milliliters? 480 mL 1. A nurse works in the military hospital from 1300 to 2000. How many hours does this nurse work? A. 8 hours B. 11 hours C. 7 hours D. 12 hours 2. What temperature in Celsius is 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit? (Enter numeric value only) 37 Celsius 3. A newborn weights 3,459 grams. There are 453.59 grams per pound. What is the infant's weight in pounds and ounces? A. 7lbs 10oz. B. 10lbs 7oz. C. 13lbs 3 oz. D. 3 lbs 13 oz. 4. What kind of number system is commonly used in the United States? A. Tertiary B. Decimal C. Napoleonic D. Binary 5. A women received a bottle of perfume as a present. The bottle contains 3/4 oz of perfume. How many milliliters is this? (Enter numeric value only.) 22.5 mL 6. The metric system of measurement was developed in France during Napoleon's reign. It is based on what multiplication factor? A. The length of Napoleon’s forearm B. 2 C.10 D. Atomic weight of helium 7. How many meters are in 2 kilometers? (Enter numeric value only.) 2000 meters 1meter = 1000 kilometers 2x1000= 2000 8. How many kilograms are in 2000 grams? (Enter numeric value only.) 2 kilograms Kg g mg (move 3 times to the right or left) (L) to (s) ex: 2000=2 or 2=2000 9. To convert pounds to kilograms, what factor is used? 2.2 1 pound = 2.2 kilogram 10. A teacher's aide is preparing a snack for the class. In order to prepare the powdered drink, the aide must convert the directions to metric. The directions say, "Dilute contents of package in 3 quarts of water." The aide has a measuring device marked in liters. How many liters of water should be used? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.) Convert 5 3/4 to a decimal. Round to the nearest tenth.