BKAT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023

BKAT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023 LIS does not control bleeding NG best verified by xray expect to see what in an ex-lap? coffee ground Dilantin crystallizes in what solution? D5% Nitroprusside needs to be packed how? protected from light Cortisone needs to be tapered down to protect renal Digitalis toxicity includes... Nausea, yellow vision, PAT w/ block Lidocaine toxicity Increases BP Initial measure for the treatment of angina pectoris includes all of the following EXCEPT: a. resting ine and Beta blocker c. O2 d. Nitroglycerine b. morphine and beta blocker the classing EKG change in AMI is? a. wide Q wave b. ST segment elevation c. frequent PVCs d. prolonged P-R interval b. ST segment elevation Elevated cardiac iso-enzymes generally occure in all of the following EXCEPT: a. congestive heart failure b. Pericarditis c. closed chest injury 4. cardiac surgery A. CHF The major therapeutic goal in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is to: a. increase afterload b. lower BUN c. Increased CO d. decrease fluid volume C. increase CO How does nitroprusside and doubatmine affect CO? a. reduced preload and improved contractility b. increases preload and reduced contractility c. reduced afterload and reduced contractility d. reduces preload and afterload and improves contractiltiy D. reduces preload and afterload and improves contractility. In dealing with a depressed patient during the 1st days post AMI the most appropriate nursing action would be? a. encourage to vent about concerns b. provide privacy c. limit visitors d. provide quiet enviroment a. encourage the pt to vent about concerns Pt recieved TpA 3 hours after AMI. Which of the following would most likely require discontinuing the infusion? a. PVCs. b. bleeding gums c. ooziing at insertion site d. change in mental status d. change in mental status The use of an A-line may be indicated for all of the following except? a. shock with too low BP to be read by cuff b. pt being treated with IV vasopressors c. vented pt requiring frequent ABGs d. for the admin of routine drugs d. for the admin of routine drugs After a a-line is removed pressure should be held for how long? a. 2 minutes b. 5-10 minutes c. until oozing stops d. until pressure dressing is applied b. 5-10 minutes CVP reads what pressure? a. left atrium b. right atrium c. Left ventricle d. pulm. artery b. right atrium an elevated CVP may indicate? a. right HF b. fall in hematocrit c. actue dehydration d. onset of left ventricular failure a. Right HF PAOP reflects pressure where? a. aorta b. left ventricle c. right atrium d. vena cava b. left ventricle Normal PA pressures a. 10-20/ 0-4 - 5-10 b. 21-30/5-15 - 11-20 c. 31-36/ d. 36-45/ B. 21-30/5-15 mean - 11-12 How many mmHg is the noraml PAOP? a. 1-3 b. 6-12 c.15-20 d. 21-26 b. 6-12 (in the book its 8-12) an elevated PAOP may indicate? a. hypovolemia b. peripheral vasodilation c. systemic hypotension d. left ventricular failure d. Left ventricular failure treatment for a-fib/ a-flutter? a. levophed b. nifedipine c. cardizem d. adenosine c. cardizem QRS complex wider than 0.12 seconds most likely indicates? a. NS nod conduction b. BBB c. second degree heart block d. myocardial infarction b. BBB special care should be excersided when adminstering IV dopamine because? a. infiltration leads to tissure necrosis b. high doses may lead to a profound bradycardia c. precipitation can occur when used in a dextrose solution d. even low doses decrease renal perfusion a. infiltration leads to tissue necrosis A strong ventricular stimulation is potentially dangerous when it lands on the: a. u wave b. p wave c. t wave d. QRS complex c. t-wave Indication for use of external cardiac pacemaker include? a. PAT with block b. V-fib c. Wenchbach (Type 1) d. symptomatic complete heart block d. symptomatic complete heart block initial drug treatment for sustained v-tach when a pulse is present is: a. Isuprel 1.0 mg in 250 mL D5W. b. epi 1.0 mg IV push c. atropine 0.5 mg IV push d. Amiodarone 150mg IV over 10 minutes d. amio 150mg IV over 10 minutes the cardiac rhythm of atrial flutter is a. benign condition in most people b. normal following AMI c. hazardous as a ventricular rate may suddenly increase d. hazardous as it may progress to second degree heart block c. hazardous as a ventricular rate may suddenly increase upon recognizing v-fib in a safe enviroment the nurse should then: a. perform a precordial thump b. establish unresponsiveness c. give IV amio d. check EKG leads b. establish unresponsivness. one of the first therapies to be administered in the treatment of complete heart block is? a. atropine b. trancutaneous pacing c metoprolol d. digoxin b. trancutaneous pacing pt is in a flutter with ventricular response of 150 bpm. therapy includes? a. amiodarone, cardizem, cardiovert b. lidocaine, sodium bicard, cardioversion c. digoxin, KCl, pacemaker d. Isodril, nitropaste, amiodarone a. amiodarone, cardizem, cardiovert signs of cardiac tampnade may include all of the following except? a. distended neck veins b. pulsus paradoxus c. decreased SBP d. bradycardia d. bradycardia Pt in V-fib, in 1st defib how many joules do you set it to? monphasic and biphasic? mono- 350 biphasic- 150 pt becomes apneic and pulsesless. the monitor shoes systole. The drug that would most likley be used initially is? a. amio b. atropine c. epi 4. lidocaine c. epi antedote for heparin? protamine sulfate antedote for warfain? vit k an excessive amount of CT draining in the first few hours following surgery is how many ccs? 150 before suctioning a patient, you adjust the vacuum pressure so that it is? a. 120 mmHg of vacuum pressure b. as high as needed to remove secretions c. 40 mmHg of vacuum pressure d. no highter than the DBP a. 120 mmHg of vacuum pressure post op pt has CT on anterior left side, you notice diminished LS on right posterior base. What does this indicate? a. pleuritis b. consolidation c. atelectasis d. the CT c. atelectasis