623 Adult - Male Genitourinary - NP Certification, Fitzgerald 4th ed, Questions with accurate answers, Rated A

623 Adult - Male Genitourinary - NP Certification, Fitzgerald 4th ed, Questions with accurate answers, Rated A Document Content and Description Below 623 Adult - Male Genitourinary - NP Certification, Fitzgerald 4th ed, Questions with accurate answers, Rated A d. boggy gland - which of the following is INCONSISTENT with the description o f benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)? a. obliteraed mediam sulcus b. size loarger than 2.5cm x 3cm c. sensation of incomplete emptying d. boggy gland b. an alpha1 antagonist should NOT be used as a solo or first-line txment agent - when prescribing antihypertensive txment for a man with BPH and hypertension, the NP considers that: a. loop diuretics are the tx of choice b. an alpha1 antagonist should NOT be used as a solo or first-line txment agent c. angiotensin receptor antagonist use is contraindicated d. beta-adrenergic antagonist use often enhances urinary flow a. prostate size does not correlate well with severity of sxs - when assessing a 78 y/o man with suspected BPH, the NP considers that: a. prostate size does not correlate well with severity of sxs b. BPH affects less than 50% of men of this age c. he is at increased risk for prostate cancer d. limiting fluids is a helpful method of relieving severe sxs a. amitriptyline - which of the following meds can contribute to the development of acute urinary retention in an older man with BPH? a. amitriptyline b. loratadine c. enalapril d. lorazepam d. postrenal azotemia - a 78 y/o man presents with a 3 day hx of new-onset fatigue and difficulty with bladder emptying. exam reveals a distended bladder but is otherwise unremarkab.e. BUN level is 88mg/dL; creatinine level is 2/8 mg/dL. the most likely dx is: a. prerenal azotemia b. acute glomerulonephritis c. tubular necrosis d. postrenal azotemia d. acute tubular necrosis - surgical intervention in BPH should be considered with all of the following except: a. recurrent UTI b. bladder stones c. persistent obstruction despite medical txment d. acute tubular necrosis b. prostate size - finasteride (proscar, propecia) and dutasteride (avodart) are helpful in the txment of BPH because of their effect on: a. bladder contractility b. prostate size c. activity at select bladder receptor sites d. bladder pressure c. activity at select bladder receptor sites - tamsulosin (flomas) is helpful in the txment of BPH because of its effect on: a. bladder contractility b. prostate size c. activity at select bladder receptor sites d. bladder pressure b. the use of a validated pt sx tool is an important part of dx the condition - concerning BPH, which of the following statements is true? a. digital rectal exam is accurate in dxing the condition b. the use of a validated pt sx tool is an important part of dx the condition c. prostate size directly correlates with sxs and bladder emptying d. bladder distention is usually present in early disease d. these tx are safest and most effective when used with RX meds - concerning herbal and nutritional txment for BPH tx, which of the following statements is FALSE? a. the mechanism of action of the most effective and best studied products is similar to prescription meds for this condition b. these tx are currently considered emerging tx by the American Urological Association c. major areas of concern with use of these tx include issues of product purity and quality control d. these tx are safest and most effective when used with RX meds b. a painful ulcer - you examine a 32 y/o man with chancroid and anticipate finding: a. a verruciform lesion b. a painful ulcer c. a painless, crater-like lesion d. a plaquelike lesion c. blood-tinged penile discharge - all of the following are typical findings for a pt with chancroid except: a. multiple lesions b. spontaneous rupture of affected nodes c. blood-tinged penile discharge d. dense, matted lymphadenopathy on the ipsilateral side of the legion d. haemophilus ducreyi - the causative organism of chancroid is: a. ureaplasma species b. chlamydia trachomatic c. mycoplasma hominis d. haemophilus ducreyi d. amoxicillin - txment options for chancroid include all of the following EXCEPT: a. azithromycin b. ciprofloxacin c. ceftriaxone d. amoxicillin a. concomitant infection with herpes simplex is often found - when ordering lab tests to confirm chancroid, the NP considers that: a. concomitant infection with herpes simplex is often found b. a disease-specific serum test is available c. a WBC count with diff is indicated d. dark-field exam is needed b. C. trachomatis types 1 to 3 - the most common causative organism of lymphogranuloma venereum is: a. ureaplasma genitalium b. C. trachomatis types 1 to 3 c. Neisseria gonorrhoease d. H. ducreyi b. 1-4 weeks - sxs of lymphogranuloma venereum typically occur how long after contact with an infected host? a. 5-7 days b. 1-4 weeks c. 4-6 weeks d. 2-3 months b. lesions that fuse and create multiple draining sinuses - PE findings in lymphogranuloma venereum include: a. verruciform lesions b. lesions that fuse and create multiple draining sinuses c. a painless crater d. plaquelike lesions a. doxycycline - txment options for lymphogranuloma venereum include: a. doxycycline b. penicillin c. ceftriaxone d. dapsone a. the presence of a + Prehn sign - the presentation of acute epididymitis in an otherwise well 22 y/o includes: a. the presence of a + Prehn sign b. low back pain c. absent cremasteric reflex d. diffuse abdominal pain c. C. trachomatis - the most likely causative pathogens in a 26 y/o with acute epididymitis include: a. escherichia coli b. enterobacteriaceae c. C. trachomatis d. pseudomonas species a. Escherichia coli - a likely causative pathogens in a 25 y/o with acute epididymitis who has sex with men is: a. Escherichia coli b. mycoplasma spp. c. chlamydia trachomatis d. acinetobacter baumannii a. doxycycline with ceftriaxone - which of the following is a reasonable txment option for a 30 y/o with acute epididymitis who presents without GI upset and will be txed as an outpatient? a. doxycycline with ceftriaxone b. amoxicillin with clavulanate c. metronidazole with linezolid d. clindamycin with cefixime c. levofloxacin - appropriate txment of acute epididymitis for a 32 y/o who has sex with other men is: a. ceftriaxone b. azithromycin c. levofloxacin d. TMP-SMX a. irritative voiding sxs - yes - indicate whether each finding would be present in acute epididymitis (yes or no) a. irritative voiding sxs - yes b. irritative voiding sxs - no a. penile discharge - yes - indicate whether each finding would be present in acute epididymitis (yes or no) a. penile discharge - yes b. penile discharge - no b. ulcerative lesion - no - indicate whether each finding would be present in acute epididymitis (yes or no) a. ulcerative lesion - yes b. ulcerative lesion - no a. scrotal swelling - yes - indicate whether each finding would be present in acute epididymitis (yes or no) a. scrotal swelling - yes b. scrotal swelling - no b. boggy prostate - no - indicate whether each finding would be present in acute epididymitis (yes or no) a. boggy prostate - yes b. boggy prostate - no a. epididymoorchitis in later stages of disease - yes - indicate whether each finding would be present in acute epididymitis (yes or no) a. epididymoorchitis in later stages of disease - yes b. epididymoorchitis in later stages of disease - no c. gram-negative diplococci - N. gonorrhoeae are best described as: a. gram- positive cocci b. gram-positive rods c. gram-negative diplococci d. gram-negative bacilli a. ceftriaxone 250mg IM as a single dose plus a single dose of azithromycin 1g PO - the preferred txment for uncomplicated gonococcal proctitis is: a. ceftriaxone 250mg IM as a single dose plus a single dose of azithromycin 1g PO b. oral erythromycin 500mg bid for 7 days c. oral norfloxacin 400mg bid with metronidazole 500mg bid for 3 days d. azithromycin 1g po as a single dose plus single dose of injectable doxycyline 100mg a. cefixime - which of the following is recommended by the CDC as single dose txment for uncomplicated ur