Firefighter 2 Final Exam Prep Comprehensive Test

Firefighter 2 Final Exam Prep Divisions of labor... A. Outlines how things are to be done and usually how far a person can go without requesting further guidance B. Relates to the number of people one person can supervise effectively C. Assigns a task to an individual to make that person responsible for completing the task D. Is the idea that each firefighter answers to only one supervisor - C. Assigns a task to an individual to make that person responsible for completing the task The incident management system defines span of control as: A. organizing an incident by breaking down the overall strategy into smaller tasks B. having the ability to start small and expand if an incident becomes more complex C. the number of subordinate who report to one supervisor D. each person having only one supervisor - C. the number of subordinate who report to one supervisor Firefighters perform duties and responsibilities in accordance with the ________ who establishes the minimum standards for firefighters. A. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) B. Federal Emergency Management Association (FEMA) C. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) D. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) - C. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) ________ is the standard that contains minimum requirements and procedures for a safety and health program. A. 1901 B. 1932 C. 1001 D. 1500 - D. 1500 What does an initial radio report provide? A. Transfer of command B. Description of conditions as they appear C. Procedure for requesting a special alarm D. Operations from a legal and statistical standpoint - B. Description of conditions as they appear Which of the following should be an arrival report? A. Number of victims B. Discussion of command C. Correct address of the incident D. Emergency medical services on scene - C. Correct address of the incident Which of the following provides the telecommunications center with a continuous record of actions at scene? A. Arrival report B. Progress report C. Initial radio report D. Personal accountability report - B. Progress report What task may a telecommunications center be assigned during a progress report? A. Requesting multiple or special alarms B. Providing periodic time transmissions C. Warning personnel of impending hazard on scene D. Giving command in the absence of command staff - B. Providing periodic time transmissions ________ must follow a broadcast process that begins with a clear statement that alerts all listeners. A. Arrival reports B. Emergency radio traffic C. Tactical progress reports D. Additional resource requests - B. Emergency radio traffic Which of the following would be a reason to request a personnel accountability report (PAR)? A. The primary search is started B. A secondary search is completed C. An emergency evacuation is ordered D. The public information officer requests it - C. An emergency evacuation is ordered Which of following BEST explains why information is gathered for a post incident report? A. reviewing tactical operations errors B. Determining trends in firefighter injuries C. Suggesting locations that need preincident surveys D. Providing information to media before the official report - B. Determining trends in firefighter injuries What does the National Fire Incident Reporting System (NFIRS) do? (122) A. Informs other responding units of current conditions B. Gives description of conditions as they appear on scene C. Outlines necessary information needed to complete incident reports D. Provides telecommunications center with continuous record of actions at scene - C. Outlines necessary information needed to complete incident reports What general information is in a postincident report? (122-123) A. Witness names B. Dispatch transmissions C. Estimated cost of damage D. Number of people interviewed - C. Estimated cost of damage Which statement regarding fire incident reorts is correct? A. Reports are used only for statistical information. B. Reports are collected nationally and then reported to each state. C. Paper reports are preferred over computer reports since they are signed. D. Local fire information becomes part of the national database. - D. Local fire information becomes part of the national database National Fire Incident Reporting System information is: A. used to help reduce the loss of life and property by fire. B. confidential. C. limited to fire incidents only. D. only to be shared internally. - A. Used to help reduce the loss of life and property by fire Knowing types of doors and door hardware can help firefighters: (190) A. judge roof safety. B. predict fire development. C. select correct forcible entry tools. D. select the right type of vertical tactical ventilation. - C. Select correct forcible entry tool Which of the following BEST describes a primary dangerous building condition? (191) A. Conditions that suppress fire B. Conditions that allow tactical ventilation C. Conditions that contribute to fire spread D. Conditions that permit occupants to safely escape - C. Conditions that contribute to fire spread Fuel loading is defined as the maximum heat produced if: (191) A. no combustible materials are present. B. all combustible materials in a given area burn. C. nothing but combustible materials are present. D. none of the combustible materials in a given area burn. - B. All combustible materials in a given area burn What is the most effective defense against heavy content fuel loading? (191-192) A. Proper inspection and code enforcement B. Restricting the types of combustible materials used C. Adopting local standards that limit multistory buildings D. Not allowing the use of combustible materials in construction - A. Proper inspection and code enforcement Vertical tactical ventilation can be defined as channeling smoke from the: (192) A. lowest point in a building. B. highest point in a building. C. point in a building that has the most windows. D. point in a building that has the least windows. - B. Highest point in a building The critical temperature for steel trusses is: (193) A. 300°F (149°C). B. 500°F (260°C). C. 900°F (482°C). D. 1,000°F (538°C) . - D. 1,000 °F (538°C) Which type of roof is used whenever large open floor spaces with limited interior support is needed? (193) A. Lantern B. Mansard C. Sawtooth D. Bowstring truss - D. Bowstring truss Which of the following BEST describes a possible construction hazard? (194) A. Fire detection systems may be damaged. B. Furnishings may contribute to fire spread. C. The building is subject to rapid fire spread because protective features are not in place. D. Danger increases because occupants and belongings remain in one part of the building while work goes on in the other. - C. The building is subject to rapid fire spread because protective features are not in place Renovation, age of the structure, weather, and loads are all: (195) A. renovations hazards. B. structural collapse factors. C. building construction hazards. D. impossible to estimate the impact of on a structure. - B. Structural collapse factors Which of the following BEST describes when structural collapse may occur? (197) A. It can occur when all the factors are met. B. It can only occur before fire suppression. C. It can only occur during fire suppression. D. It can occur well after the fire is extinguished. - D. It can occur well after the fire is extinguished In what fire stage is structural collapse very likely? (197) A. Incipient B. Growth C. Fully developed D. Decay - D. Decay How much is added to the weight of floors for every U.S. gallon (SI liter) used during suppression? (198) A. 5.22 pounds (2.37 kilograms) B. 6.25 pounds (2.83 kilograms) C. 8.33 pounds (3.69 kilograms) D. 10.22 pounds (4.63 kilograms) - C. 8.33 pounds (3.69 kg) When a collapse is imminent, personnel ___ in the collapse zone. (199) A. should never work B. are allowed to work C. may stay for twenty minutes D. may cautiously place an unstaffed master stream - D. May cautiously place an unstaffed master stream Which of the following BEST describes where the collapse zone is established? (199) A. Adjacent to any exposed interior walls B. Adjacent to any exposed exterior walls C. Near any area that is 10 feet (3.04 m) from exterior walls D. Near any area that is 20 feet (6.09 m) from exterior walls - B. Adjacent to any exposed exterior walls For which type of construction is flying glass the primary collapse zone hazard concern? (199) A. Type I B. Type III C. Type IV D. Type V - A. Type I When exposed to temperatures above ___ unprotected steel will expand and twist. (199) A. 300°F (149°C) B. 500°F (260°C) C. 900°F (482°C) D. 1,000°F (538°C) - D. 1,000°F (538°C) A collapse zone for a Type IV structure should be established when: (200) A. its veneer begins to curtain collapse. B. walls begin to shift because the building is twisting. C. the structure has been weakened by repeated fires over time. D. it has been determined that glass shards will be directed at on-scene personnel. - C. The structure has been weakened by repeated fires over time A collapse zone must be established when: (201) A. a defensive strategy has been adopted. B. there is no evidence of structural instability. C. mortar between masonry shows no sign of deterioration. D. furnishings and finishes do not overwhelm fire suppression systems. - A. A defensive strategy has been adopted Which of the following must be considered when deciding the size of a collapse zone? (201) A. Local adopted building codes B. Number of personnel on-scene C. Type of building construction and safest location for personnel D. Number of personnel on-scene and type of building construction - C. Type of building construction and safest location for personnel The primary fire hazard in fire resistive construction is the: A. structural members. B. contents of the structure. C. lack of walls. D. construction design. - B. Contents of the structure Spalling of concrete could lead to early collapse in Type I buildings because: A. loss of moisture in concrete reduces its fire rating. B. the added weight of broken pieces may cauase overload. C. it could create void spaces. D. reinforcing steel is exposed to the heat of the fire. - D. Reinforcing steel is exposed to the heat of the fire Firefighters should know that fire in Type V construction presents: A. shortening of steel components B. breakdown of the concrete members due to the heat buildup. C. extensive spalling D. high potential for fire extension within the building. - D. high potential for fire extension within the building One of the most serious building construction hazards facing firefighters today is the: A. increased use of noncombustible materials. B. increased use of lightweight and trussed support systems. C. heavy content of fire loading. D. presence of combustible furnishings and finishes. - B. Increased use of lightweight and trussed support systems Conventional glass: A. is not an effective barrier to fire extension. B. is a good barrier to fire extension. C. will not crack due to the heat. D. will contain the fire to that area. - A. is not an effective barrier to a fire extension A(an) ________________ is designed to prevent the spread of fire within a structure or between adjacent structures. A. stop B. partition C. truss D. fire wall - D. Fire wall A connecting plate used in truss construction that can be made of flat steel stock, light gauge metal, or plywood is the definition of a: A. joint. B. gusset plate. C. column. D. joist. - B. Gusset plate A partition wall: A. is a load-bearing wall. B. presents the greatest danger for building collapse. C. simply divides two areas within a structure. D. has the highest fire-resistive rating. - C. simply divides two areas within a structure The usual cause of collapse of a lightweist steel truss is the: A. amount of heat generated by the fire within a structure. B. poor construction methods. C. impact load of firefighters jumping onto roof. D. coolings effects of water. - A. amount of heat generated by the fire within a structure Fire walls are: A. usually veneer walls. B. used only to separate two attached buildings. C. only used to divide a large building into sections. D. usually extended from the foundation up to and through the roof of a building. - D. usually extended from the foundation up to and through the roof of a building Which gas is usually found in smoky conditions? A. Carbon fluoride B. Hydrogen Cyanide C. Choride D. Oxygen - B. Hydrogen Cyanide A Class K system is used for: A. metal rims. B. flammable solids. C. cooking oils. D. electrical boxes. - C. cooking oils Which of the following BEST describes when to replace a spark plug on an electrical generator? A. When it is damaged B. After three months of use C. During routine maintenance D. After five to eight months of use - A. When it is damaged Which of the following BEST describes the result of running a generator for a long period of time without a load? A. May contaminate fuel B. Can damage electrical system C. Will overheat and damage generator D. Allows equipment to warm-up before use - C. Will overheat and damage generator If a bulb must be replaced while hot, wear _____ to prevent being burned. A.latex gloves B.cotton gloves C.leather gloves D.synthetic gloves - C. Leather gloves Which of the following rescue tool uses includes tools to drag materials away to free victims? A. Lifting B. Pulling C. Cutting D. Stabilizing - B. Pulling Tool capabilities vary depending on: (486) A. age of tool. B. user ability. C. age of tool and power source. D. manufacturer and power source. - D. Manufacturer and power source Which rescue tool power source is typically powered by pumps? (488) A. Electric B. Hydraulic C. Pneumatic D. Electric/pneumatic - B. Hydraulic Which hydraulic/electric tool is excellent for a small rapid-interventions vehicle? (489) A. Shears B. Spreaders C. Extension rams D. Combination spreader/shears - D. Combination spreaders/shears Which type of rescue tools are typically vehicle repair tools adapted to fire service use? (490) A. Pulling tools B. Cutting tools C. Power rescue tools D. Pneumatic and manual rescue tools - D. Pneumatic and manual rescue tools What type of saw is often used for delicate cutting operations? (492) A. Rotary saw B. Circular saw C. Whizzer saw D. Reciprocating saw - C. Whizzer saw During vehicle extrication operations what is the BEST type of surface to place a jack on? (493) A. A flat, level surface B. A soft, angled surface C. The surface closest to the vehicle D. The surface farthest from the vehicle - A. A flat, level surface Which type of jack is operated by using the jack to tighten and support a shoring/stabilizing system? (494) A. Screw jack B. Hydraulic jack C. Trench screw jack D. Ratchet-lever jack - C. Trench screw jack What stabilizing tool uses a system of at least three posts wedged between the ground and a vehicle resting on its side or top? (495) A. Hydraulic jack B. Wheel chocks C. Ratchet-lever jack D. Buttress tension system - D. Buttress tension system Which of the following stabilizing tools must comply with both NFPA® and Society of Automotive Engineers standards? (495) A. Wheel chocks B. Hydraulic jack C. Cribbing materials D. Buttress tension system - A. Wheel chocks Which of the following BEST describes why plastic cribbing may be preferred over wooden cribbing? (496) A. It is less expensive to buy. B. It is lighter and lasts longer. C. It will not slip under wet conditions. D. It is rated so that quality is ensured. - B. It is lighter and lasts longer What type of lifting tool is used to create an anchor point above a manhole or opening? (496) A. Tripod B. Low-pressure lifting bag C. High-pressure lifting bag D. Medium-pressure lifting bag - A. Tripod Which of the following tools is made in three basic types and gives rescuers the ability to lift or displace objects? (496) A. Cribbing materials B. Nonhydraulic jacks C. Pneumatic lifting bags D. Buttress tension system - C. Pneumatic lifting bags