AMT MT Study Guide latest updated (Graded A)

The three major phases of laboratory testing that a QA program should evaluate include a. mean, standard deviation, and coefficient of variation. b. pre-op, operative, and post-op. c. pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical. d. outpatient, inpatient, and non-patient. - Answer- c. pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical. The process by which test results achieve the same high levels of accuracy and precision that can be reproduced across measurement systems, laboratories and time is referred to as a. laboratory process control. b. laboratory calibration. c. laboratory standardization. d. laboratory verification. - Answer- c. laboratory standardization. What characteristics/functions do calibrators have? a. They contain a known amount of analyte being tested. b. They monitor the quality of reagents. c. They monitor the quality of the sample. d. They prevent equipment failure. - Answer- a. They contain a known amount of analyte being tested. An abrupt demonstrated change in the mean is a a. shift. b. trend. c. variance. d. deviation. - Answer- a. shift. Qualitative examinations are those that a. qualify for waived testing. b. produce non-numerical results. c. do not require quality control. d. do not require proficiency testing. - Answer- b. produce non-numerical results. A property of a test that is used to describe its quality (such as accuracy, precision, sensitivity, etc.) is a a. performance characteristic. b. performance enhancement. c. performance verification. d. performance specification. - Answer- a. performance characteristic Under CLIA law, the process of testing and adjusting an instrument or test system to establish a correlation between the measured response and the concentration or amount of the substance that is being measuredby the test procedure is a. calibration. b. calibration verification. c. a challenge. d. quality control. - Answer- a. calibration. What agency determines the complexity of a lab test system? a. CMS b. FDA c. CDC d. OSHA - Answer- b. FDA Certain moderate complexity microscopy tests (such as urine sediment evaluation and skin scrapings) commonly performed by healthcare providers in the office setting are classified as a. provider moderate complexity tests. b. provider exempt status. c. provider personnel testing. d. provider performed microscopy. - Answer- d. provider performed microscopy. Policies and procedures that are intended to promote the quality and validity of test data and ensure the reliability and integrity of data generated by analytical laboratories is known as a. CLIA Law. b. Quality Assurance Plan (QAP). c. Good Clinical Laboratory Practice (GCLP). d. Total Quality Management (TQM). - Answer- c. Good Clinical Laboratory Practice (GCLP). Devices based on electrophoretic principles are used in the clinical laboratory to perform all of the following except to a. measure quantities of various proteins in plasma, urine, and CSF. b. separate enzymes into their component isoenzymes. c. identify antibodies. d. measure molecules in a characteristic spectrum called the emission spectrum. - Answer- d. measure molecules in a characteristic spectrum called the emission spectrum. The chemistry methodology that is based on the fact that substances of clinical interest selectively absorb or emit electromagnetic energy at different wavelengths is a. flourometry. b. atomic absorption. c. spectrophotometry. d. photometry. - Answer- c. spectrophotometry. Given %T, how is absorbance calculated? a. log %T - 2. b. log %T + 2. c. 2 + log %T. d. 2 - log %T. - Answer- d. 2 - log %T. Prohibiting recapping of needles is an example of a. a workplace control. b. an engineering control. c. a best practice in the workplace. d. a human resources requirement. - Answer- a. a workplace control. The majority of all centrifuge accidents result from a. electrical malfunctions. b. faulty mechanisms. c. user error. d. crowded work conditions. - Answer- c. user error. Material Safety Data Sheets (M.S.D.S.) are now called a. Chemical Safety Sheets. b. Safety Data System. c. Material Data System. d. Safety Data Sheets. - Answer- d. Safety Data Sheets. In order for a laboratory to handle TB sputum and TB materials, the laboratory must operate at a a. biosafety level of 2+ or 3. b. biosafety level 4. c. location where air exchange is continuous. d. location where fume hood exhausts are monitored daily. - Answer- a. biosafety level of 2+ or 3. What is the molarity of an unknown HCL solution with a specific gravity of 1.10 and an assay percentage of 18.5%? (Atomic weights: H = 1.00794, Cl = 35.4527) a. 203.5 M b. 36.5 M c. 5.6 M d. 5.2 M - Answer- c. 5.6 M 1.10 * 0.185 = 0.2035 g/mL 0.2035 g/mL * 1000 = 203.5 g/L Molarity = (g/L) / molecular weight (MW) 203.5 / 36.5 = 5.6 M MCV = HCT * 10/(?) a. MCHC b. MCV c. RBC d. MCH - Answer- c. RBC A substage lens of the microscope that focuses light on the slide specimen is the a. condenser. b. aperture. c. C-mount. d. diaphragm. - Answer- a. condenser. The magnification of a microscope is determined by the a. high power objective multiplied by the low power objective. b. thickness of the condenser. c. powers of the eyepiece and objective. d. fine focus adjustment. - Answer- c. powers of the eyepiece and objective. You have just completed morning rounds when you realize that you have an unlabeled tube in your tray. You are certain you know what patient the tube belongs to. How should you proceed? a. After sorting the tubes you see what specimen is missing, discard the unlabeled tube and go recollect the specimen. b. After sorting the tubes, you see what specimen is missing so label your unlabeled tube with that patient's information. c. Discard the tube and hope know one realizes there is a missing specimen. d. Discard all your tubes and redraw everyone to make sure all the specimens are correct. - Answer- a. After sorting the tubes you see what specimen is missing, discard the unlabeled tube and go recollect the specimen. You are working in receiving and receive urine specimens with the following labels. Select the label that contains the required labeling elements for a primary specimen. a. Name: Jane DeerbrDOB: 3-6-3brRoom #: 123brCollect time/date: 0550 7/6/13 b. Name: Deer, JRbrDOB: 3/6/2003brLocation: clinicbrCollect time/date: 0550 7/6/13 c. Name: Deer, Jane RaybrDOB: 3/6/2003brHospital number: brCollect time/date: 0550 7/6/2013 d. Name: Deer, JanebrDOB: 3/6/2003brHospital number:brCollect time/date: 0500 7/6/2013 - Answer- c. Name: Deer, Jane RaybrDOB: 3/6/2003brHospital number: brCollect time/date: 0550 7/6/2013 A gel separator tube is received with orders for a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) and serum Glucose test. How should this request be handled? a. Centrifuge the specimen and aliquot some serum into another tube for chemistry. Then send the tube to blood bank for the DAT. b. Centrifuge the specimen once it has clotted and deliver it to chemistry for the serum glucose test. The DAT will need to be recollected because this is not the appropriate specimen. c. Have both tests recollected since this is not an appropriate specimen for either test. d. Send the specimen to blood bank first for the DAT and ask them to send it on to chemistry when they are through. - Answer- b. Centrifuge the specimen once it has clotted and deliver it to chemistry for the serum glucose test. The DAT will need to be recollected because this is not the appropriate specimen. Within what time frame should a urine specimen that does not contain preservative be processed for a routine urinalysis if it is stored at room temperature? a. Within one hour of collection b. Within two hours of collection c. Within four hours of collection d. Within five hours of collection - Answer- b. Within two hours of collection Which of the following actions is appropriate when a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) specimen is delivered to the laboratory's specimen processing area? a. Refrigerate the specimens immediately. b. Deliver the specimens to the testing area along with routine specimens when it is convenient. c. Deliver the specimens immediately to the appropriate testing areas. d. Incubate the specimen until routine testing can take place. - Answer- c. Deliver the specimens immediately to the appropriate testing areas. Which of the following characterizes reversed-phase liquid-liquid chromatography? a. Mobile phase is nonpolar relative to the polar stationary phase b. Mobile and stationary phases are nonpolar c. Mobile and stationary phases are polar d. Mobile phase is polar relative to the nonpolar stationary phase - Answer- d. Mobile phase is polar relative to the nonpolar stationary phase The measurement of the decrease in intensity of an incident light beam as it passes through a solution of particles defines which of the following methods? a. Turbidimetry b. Nephelometry c. Chemiluminescence d. Bioluminescence - Answer- a. Turbidimetry Which of the following labels is used in the detection of electrochemiluminescence? a. Acridinium esters b. Dioxetane c. Tritium d. Ruthenium III - Answer- d. Ruthenium III POCT devices use a variety of analytical principles such as reflectance, spectrophotometry, fluorescence, and ________. a. ESI b. IFE c. RIA d. PCR - Answer- d. PCR The amount of wavelength isolation is a function of the monochromator type and of which of the following? a. Width of entrance and exit slits b. Height of entrance and exit slits c. Width of entrance and height of exit slits d. Height of entrance and width of exit slits - Answer- a. Width of entrance and exit slits Which of the following is one of the most common clinical applications of GC-MS analysis? a. Drug testing b. Screening for genetic disorders c. Confirmation of inborn errors of metabolism d. Antiretroviral testing - Answer- a. Drug testing An immunoassay methodology using either europium or phycobiliproteins would use which detection method? a. Gamma counter b. Luminometer c. Fluorometer d. Photometer - Answer- c. Fluorometer What is the relationship between plasma creatinine and muscle mass? a. Inversely proportional b. Approximately equal c. Directly proportional d. Exactly equal - Answer- c. Directly proportional A high-protein diet may cause a a. prerenal plasma urea increase. b. postrenal plasma urea increase. c. prerenal plasma urea decrease. d. postrenal plasma urea decrease. - Answer- a. prerenal plasma urea increase. Catabolism of which of the following results in the formation of uric acid? a. Proteins b. Pyrimidines c. Porphyries d. Purines - Answer- d. Purines Jendrassik-Grof or Evelyn-Malloy are the most commonly used methods to measure a. Fructose b. Bilirubin c. Urea d. Cholesterol - Answer- b. Bilirubin The reference range of urobilinogen is a. 0.1-1.0 mg/dL every 2 hours. b. 0.1-1.0 µmol/L every 2 hours. c. 0.1-1.0 Ehrlich units every 2 hours. d. 0.1-1.0 Babson units every 2 hours. - Answer- c. 0.1-1.0 Ehrlich units every 2 hours. Which is used as the indicator enzyme in the measurement of ALT? a. LD b. AST c. ALP d. CK - Answer- a. LD Which of the following is the formation of glucose-6-phosphate from sources other than carbohydrates? a. Gluconeogenesis b. Glycolysis c. Glycogenolysis d. Glycogenesis - Answer- a. Gluconeogenesis With which enzyme does carbohydrate metabolism begin? a. Pancreatic amylase b. Lactate dehydrogenase c. Salivary amylase d. Phosphofructokinase - Answer- c. Salivary amylase A serum electrophoretic pattern showing a β-γ bridge would likely be from a patient with a. liver cirrhosis. b. nephritic syndrome. c. inflammation. d. myelomatosis. - Answer- a. liver cirrhosis. Which of the following associations of creatine kinase and disease condition is correct? a. CK-MM and Reye's syndrome b. CK-BB and muscular dystrophy c. CK-MB and inflammatory heart disease d. CK-MB and acute renal failure - Answer- c. CK-MB and inflammatory heart disease What is the protein portion of an enzyme? a. Holoenzyme b. Zymogen c. Apoenzyme d. Isoenzyme - Answer- c. Apoenzyme AST is classified as a(an) a. oxidoreductase. b. transferase. c. hydrolase. d. isomerase. - Answer- b. transferase. Elevations in ALP levels are seen in hepatobiliary and which other disorders? a. Kidney b. Lung c. Pancreas d. Bone - Answer- d. Bone Which enzyme catalyzes the interconversion of lactate and pyruvate? a. PK b. LD c. GP d. CK - Answer- b. LD Anterior pituitary hormones include LH, FSH, TSH, GH, and a. ACTH and cortisol. b. Inhibin and IGF-1. c. ACTH and prolactin. d. E2 and T3. - Answer- c. ACTH and prolactin Parathyroid glands increase or decrease PTH secretion in response to changes in levels of which of the following? a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Chloride d. Calcium - Answer- d. Calcium Growth hormone is an amphibolic hormone because it directly influences which processes? a. Both anabolic and catabolic b. Only anabolic c. Only catabolic d. Neither anabolic nor catabolic - Answer- a. Both anabolic and catabolic Which of the following lipoproteins transfers triglycerides from the intestine to the liver? a. CM b. LVDL c. LDL d. HDL - Answer- a. CM n most enzymatic methods for cholesterol measurement, cholesterol oxidase reacts with free cholesterol to produce which of the following? a. Cholesteryl esters b. NADH c. H2O2 d. Cholestenone - Answer- c. H2O2 Ionized calcium is measured on automated systems by which of the following methods? a. CPC b. AAS c. TLC d. ISE - Answer- d. ISE Which of the following is the immediate precursor to angiotensin II? a. Renin b. Angiotensinogen c. Angiotensin III d. Angiotensin I - Answer- d. Angiotensin I Which of the following is the method of choice for confirmation testing following a positive opiate drug screening result? a. AAS b. HPLC c. Immunoassay d. GC-MS - Answer- d. GC-MS Chronic exposure to organic mercury is cumulative because most of it is bound to which of the following? a. Adipose tissue b. Neuronal proteins c. Renal tubules d. Splenic tissue - Answer- b. Neuronal proteins Formic acid formed by the metabolism of methanol is responsible for which of the following? a. Liver cirrhosis b. Optic neuropathy c. Renal tubular damage d. Severe CNS symptoms - Answer- b. Optic neuropathy Serum copper levels less than the reference interval and increased urinary levels describe which condition? a. Wilson's disease b. Addison's disease c. Cushing's syndrome d. Reye's syndrome - Answer- a. Wilson's disease Which of the following is a functional test used to assess fetal lung maturity? a. L/S ratio b. PG c. FSI d. Lamellar body counts - Answer- c. FSI Which of the following determinations is used to assess the total body lead poisoning burden? a. Zinc protoporphyrin b. 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D c. GFR d. Whole blood lead - Answer- d. Whole blood lead Which of the following is a semi-synthetic opiate with 2-3 times the analgesic potency of its parent compound, morphine? a. Codeine b. Fentanyl c. Heroin d. Tramadol - Answer- c. Heroin The dose that would be predicted to produce a toxic effect in 50% of a population is represented by which of the following? a. EDsub50/sub b. LDsub50/sub c. TDsub50/sub d. IDsub50/sub - Answer- c. TDsub50/sub Due to the variable cross-reactivity with immunoassays, positive results are considered to be presumptive positives with which class of drugs? a. MDMA b. THC c. Amphetamines d. Phencyclidine - Answer- c. Amphetamines The purposes of TDM are to ensure that the drug dosage provides the maximum therapeutic benefit and which of the following? a. Identify the standard dose b. Identify when the drug is outside the therapeutic range c. Determine the efficiency of absorption d. Determine the route of administration - Answer- b. Identify when the drug is outside the therapeutic range What is the final product of hepatic ethanol metabolism? a. Acetaldehyde b. Acetone c. Acetic acid d. Acetate - Answer- c. Acetic acid Which of the following is a good indicator of chronic malnutrition? a. Transferrin b. Transtryretin c. C-reactive protein d. Albumin - Answer- d. Albumin When conducting a manual leukocyte count, what area of the Neubauer hemacytometer is used to count cells? a. Center square only b. 4 corner squares c. 4 corner and center of center square d. All 9 squares - Answer- d. All 9 squares The average life span of an erythrocyte is 120 days; the aging cells are removed from the circulation by a. spleen. b. liver. c. pancreas. d. gallbladder. - Answer- a. spleen. You are reviewing a blood smear and come across the cells seen below. Based on this slide, what are the cells and what could the possible diagnoses be? a. Normal red blood cells, there is nothing wrong with this patient b. Elliptocyte that are seen in hereditary elliptocytosis c. Howell-Jolly bodies that are seen in has hemolytic anemia d. Stippled red blood cells that are seen in lead poisoning. - Answer- d. Stippled red blood cells that are seen in lead poisoning. What type of cell is a precursor of the non-nucleated mature red cells in the blood? a. Rouleaux b. Megaloblast c. Reactive cells d. Nucleated red cells - Answer- d. Nucleated red cells When held up to the light, a properly stained blood smear will have what color? a. Deep blue at the feathered edge b. Light pink-purple at the feathered edge c. Bright red at the feathered edge d. Light aqua at the feathered edge - Answer- b. Light pink-purple at the feathered edge In humans, a white blood cell is also known as a(n) a. carbinocyte. b. erythrocyte. c. thrombocyte. d. leukocyte. - Answer- d. leukocyte. Decreased leukocyte counts are seen in the CBC in cases of a. inflammation. b. metabolic intoxication. c. viral infections. d. anxiety. - Answer- c. viral infections. Microcytic/hypochromic anemia is most commonly caused by a. disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). b. lead poisoning. c. Vitamin B12 deficiency. d. iron deficiency. - Answer- d. iron deficiency. During the CBC differential, the tech has observed the erythrocytes are smaller than the nucleus of mature lymph and they have an increased central pallor. These erythrocytes will be described as a. normocytic, hyperchromic. b. normocytic, normochromic. c. microcytic, normochromic. d. microcytic, hypochromic. - Answer- d. microcytic, hypochromic. In simplified terms, iron deficiency anemia may result from the following a. Increased iron intake (either from inadequate diet or impaired absorption), decreased iron loss (generally from chronic bleeding from a variety of causes), an error of iron metabolism (sideroblastic anemias), and/or decreased iron requirements in infancy, pregnancy and lactation b. Increased iron intake (either from inadequate diet or impaired absorption), increased iron loss (generally from chronic bleeding from a variety of causes), an error of iron metabolism (sideroblastic anemias), and/or increased iron requirements in infancy, pregnancy and lactation c. Decreased iron intake (either from inadequate diet or impaired absorption), decreased iron loss (generally from chronic bleeding from a variety of causes), an error of iron metabolism (sideroblastic anemias), and/or decreased iron requirements in infancy, pregnancy and lactation d. Decreased iron intake (either from inadequate diet or impaired absorption), increased iron loss (generally from chronic bleeding from a variety of causes), an error of iron metabolism (sideroblastic anemias), and/or increased iron requirements in infancy, pregnancy and lactation - Answer- d. Decreased iron intake (either from inadequate diet or impaired absorption), increased iron loss (generally from chronic bleeding from a variety of causes), an error of iron metabolism (sideroblastic anemias), and/or increased iron requirements in infancy, pregnancy and lactation Megaloblastic erythrocytes have an abnormal developmental sequence. As they develop, cells of the megablastic sequence have a more open or immature chromatin pattern in the nucleus, referred to as a. asynchronous maturation. b. iron deficiency anemia. c. thalassemias. d. sideroblastic anemias. - Answer- a. asynchronous maturation. Drabkin's hemoglobin reagent is no longer used because it contains a. cyanide. b. caustic. c. cobalt.