EMT FINAL REVIEW QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS

FINAL RVIEW ! #1 1. Which of the following courses requires about 150 hours of training? A. EMR B. AEMT C. EMT D. Paramedic 2. National guidelines for EMS care are intended to . A. reduce expenses at the local and state levels B. provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the United States C. facilitate a national EMS labor group D. unify EMS providers under a single medical director 3. What is an EMT's primary service area? A. The main area in which the EMS agency operates B. The only area the EMT is certified to provide patient care C. The location where the EMT provides essential care during a 9-1-1 call D. The area serviced by the EMT's medical director 4. The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on: A. EMS research. B. the lead EMT's decision. C. regional trauma guidelines. D. local protocols. 5. The ability to understand others and have them understand you is known as . A. self-confidence B. communication C. scene leadership D. teamwork and diplomacy 6. You are caring for a driver who struck a light pole. She admits to drinking alcohol but orders you not to tell anyone. You should report the information to . a. law enforcement personnel b. the receiving nurse or doctor c. your medical director d. the state motor vehicle department 7. Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct? A. The ADA applies only to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical disability. B. According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam. C. The minimum number of hours required to successfully complete an EMT course is less for candidates who are disabled. D. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled. 8. Prehospital patient care decisions should be based on . A. the experiences of EMTs B. EMS research C. an EMS agency's fiscal resources D. the opinions of physicians 9. The ability to handle multiple tasks based on their priority is called . A. patient empathy B. integrity C. time management D. patient advocacy 10. American Heart Association protocols are based on . A. trends in the EMS community B. opinions from a core group of cardiologists C. evidence-based research D. theories ready for field trial #2 1. After assessing a patient's blood glucose level, you accidentally stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should: Select one: A. report the incident to your supervisor after the call. B. discontinue patient care and seek medical attention. C. get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible. D. immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution. 2. General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases? Select one: A. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion B. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery C. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery D. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery 3. Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser: Select one: A. touches another person without his or her consent. B. makes rude remarks about a person's body parts. C. stares at certain parts of another person's anatomy. D. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else. 4. The MOST serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is: A. low morale and frequently missed shifts. B. substandard or inappropriate patient care. C. tension among coworkers and supervisors. D. punitive action and the loss of a job. 5. Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: Select one: A. direct contact. B. inanimate objects. C. smoke or dust. D. animals or insects. 6. When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: Select one: A. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions. B. use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces. C. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water. D. spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel. 7. Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction? Select one: A. An EMT is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children. B. A newly certified EMT becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries. C. An EMT with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia. D. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed 8. Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct? Select one: A. HIV is easily transmittable in the EMS field. B. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B. C. There is no vaccine against HIV infection. D. HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood. 9. Which of the following would provide the EMT with the BEST cover in a situation involving active gunfire? A. Stacked empty barrels B. A large cluster of shrubs C. Behind a car door D. A concrete barricade 10. You are transporting an elderly woman who has possibly experienced a stroke. She is obviously scared but is unable to talk and cannot move the entire right side of her body. In addition to providing the medical care that she needs, you should: Select one: A. reassure her that after proper treatment in the hospital, she will regain her speech in time. B. tell her that you understand why she is scared and that everything will likely be okay. C. maintain eye contact at all times and tell her that there is no need for her to be scared. D. acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her. #3 1. In which of the following circumstances can the EMT legally release confidential patient information? Select one: A. The family requests a copy for insurance purposes B. A police officer requests a copy to place on file C. The patient is competent and signs a release form D. A media representative inquires about the patient 2. As an EMT, the standards of emergency care are often partially based on: Select one: A. the priorities of the medical director. B. the wishes of the general public. C. a consensus among paramedic supervisors. D. locally accepted protocols. 3. You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle-versus-pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do? Select one: A. Withhold treatment until the parents arrive and give you consent for treatment. B. Treat the child at the scene and wait for the parents to arrive and give consent. C. Begin transport at once and have the parents meet you en route to the hospital. D. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital. 4. When is forcible restraint permitted? Select one: A. When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others B. Anytime that the EMT feels threatened C. Only if law enforcement personnel have witnessed threatening behavior D. Only if consent to restrain is given by a family member 5. Where would you MOST likely find information regarding a patient's wishes to be an organ donor? Select one: A. Social Security card B. Voter registration card C. Driver's license D. Insurance card 6. You respond to the home of a 59-year-old man who is unconscious; has slow, shallow breathing; and has a weak pulse. The family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. They further state that there is a DNR order for this patient, but they are unable to locate it. You should: A. begin treatment and contact medical control as needed. B. honor the patient's wishes and withhold all treatment. C. transport the patient without providing any treatment. D. decide on further action once the DNR order is produced. 7. Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: A. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons. B. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight. C. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later. D. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive. 8. Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence? Select one: A. Abandonment, breach of duty, damages, and causation B. Breach of duty, injury/damages, abandonment, and causation C. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation D. Duty to act, abandonment, breach of duty, and causation 9. Which type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital? Select one: A. Formal B. Informed C. Implied D. Expressed 10. The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: Select one: A. state EMS office. B. medical director. C. EMS supervisor. D. local health district. #4 1. You could be sued for if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation. A. libel B. negligence C. slander D. assault 2. When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: A. your questions should focus exclusively on the patient's obvious problem. B. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions. C. hostility and confusion should be presumed to be due to the patient's age. D. speaking loudly and distinctly will ensure that the patient can hear you. 3. Which of the following will help improve radio communications? Select one: A. Answer questions with “yes” or “no.” B. Hold the radio at least 6 inches from your mouth. C. Wait 1 second after pressing the transmit button before speaking. D. Use codes to speed communication. 4. A 4-year-old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother's lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child's mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should: A. attempt to calm the child's mother but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase her anxiety. B. ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother. C. reassure the child's mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about. D. give the child a favorite toy or blanket to hold onto and perform your assessment to the best of your ability. 5. You are caring for a 56-year-old male patient complaining of abdominal pain. Your service has recently switched to an electronic PCR system (ePCR). When completing the ePCR, it is important to be aware that: Select one: A. a written patient care record will need to be completed on arrival at the hospital. B. the ePCR is relatively unsecured and should not contain patient- specific information. C. the ePCR does not contain the same level of information as the written version and your verbal report should be expanded. D. the ePCR allows patient information to be transmitted directly to the receiving hospital's computers. 6. As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should: Select one: A. inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once. B. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call. C. place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call. D. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician. 7. Which of the following statements is NOT appropriate to document in the narrative section of a PCR? Select one: A. “Significant damage was noted to the front end of the vehicle.” B. “The patient admits to smoking marijuana earlier in the day.” C. “General impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated.” D. “After oxygen was administered, the patient's breathing improved.” 8. Ethnocentrism is defined as: A. suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question. B. subconsciously forcing your cultural values onto a patient because you feel that your own values are more acceptable. C. considering your own cultural values to be more important when interacting with people of a different culture. D. understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently. 9. During your assessment of a 20-year-old man with a severe headache and nausea, you ask him when his headache began, but he does not answer your question immediately. You should: Select one: A. ask him if he frequently experiences severe headaches and nausea. B. repeat your question because he probably did not hear you. C. allow him time to think about the question and respond to it. D. tell him that you cannot help him unless he answers your questions. 10. When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient's privacy by: Select one: A. using coded medical language. B. withholding medical history data. C. not disclosing his or her name. D. refraining from objective statements. #5 1. "Gastro" in the word “gastroenteritis” means: A. bowel. B. tongue. C. intestine. D. stomach. 2. Which of the following suffixes mean "pertaining to"? Select one: A. “-al” and “-ology” B. “-ic” and “-ology” C. “-al” and “-ic” D. “-ology” and “-oma” 3. You are transporting to a 66-year-old patient with a history of heart problems. The patient chart indicates that he has hepatomegaly. The root of the term indicates that: Select one: A. the problem is with the patient's liver. B. the organ involved is enlarged. C. the problem is a direct consequence of the patient's heart disease. D. the problem is unrelated to the patient's heart condition 4. A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being: Select one: A. medial. B. unilateral. C. bilateral. D. proximal. 5. In relation to the chest, the back is: Select one: A. ventral. B. posterior. Front C. inferior. D. anterior. Back 6. The term “pericardiocentesis” means: Select one: A. a surgical opening made in the heart. B. surgical repair of the sac around the heart. C. the removal of fluid from around the heart. D. narrowing of the arteries supplying the heart 7. You are transporting a 67-year-old female patient to the hospital for investigation of abdominal pain. The patient care record indicates that the patient has a history of AAA. Based on this information, the patient care record includes an abbreviation for: Select one: A. against ambulance advice. B. abdominal aortic aneurysm. C. acute abdominal assessment. D. acute abdominal aneurysm . 8. Diabetic patient has polydipsia. This means that she: Select one: A. is unable to swallow. B. urinates frequently. C. has low blood sugar. D. is excessively thirsty. 9. After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient's leg stops bleeding. This is called: Select one: A. hemolysis. B. hemiplegia. C. hematemesis. D. hemostasis. 10. The suffix “-pathy” means: Select one: A. enlargement. B. disease. C. study of. D. specialist. #6 1. Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant of the abdomen? Select one: A. Spleen B. Cecum C. Liver D. Stomach 2. A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is: Select one: A. heat. B. lactic acid. C. oxygen. D. nitrogen. 3. The is a muscular dome that forms the inferior boundary of the thorax, separating the thorax from the abdomen. Select one: A. mediastinum B. diaphragm C. costal arch D. costovertebral angle 4. Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin? Select one: A. Sensory reception B. Pressure and pain perception C. Metabolic coordination D. Temperature regulation 5. Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the: Select one: A. gallbladder. B. stomach. C. pancreas. D. kidneys. 6. The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the: Select one: A. brain and spinal cord. B. motor and sensory nerves. C. spinal cord and sensory nerves. D. brain and sensory nerves. 7. A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The “130” in this measurement represents: Select one: A. ventricular contraction. B. atrial contraction. C. ventricular relaxation. D. ventricular filling. 8. What happens when blood volume is lost from the body? Select one: A. The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure. B. Arterial blood is diverted to the skin and muscles. C. Widespread vasodilation causes blood pressure to decrease. D. The veins dilate to increase systemic perfusion. 9. If a patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if the patient's respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that: Select one: A. inspiratory reserve is increased. B. overall tidal volume is increased. C. expiratory reserve volume is decreased. D. minute volume is decreased. 10. Which of the following structures does NOT contain smooth muscle? Select one: A. Urinary system B. Skeletal system C. Blood vessels D. Gastrointestinal tract #7 1. An infant's blood pressure typically increases with age because: Select one: 2. A. the infant's total blood volume decreases with age. 3. B. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight. 4. C. his or her normal heart rate usually increases with age. 5. D. as the infant gets older, his or her blood vessels dilat 2. When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: A. most older patients are confused due to a decrease in brain cells. B. age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears. C. the majority of older patients experience a loss of low- frequency hearing. D. deafness and blindness are a normal part of the process of aging. 3. A 16-year-old female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should: Select one: A. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible. B. avoid asking questions that she will feel uncomfortable answering. C. obtain the majority of your information from one of her parents. D. recall that patients in this age group prefer not to be treated as adults. 4. The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of: Select one: A. 21 and 30 years. B. 19 and 25 years. C. 25 and 35 years. D. 18 and 22 years. 5. The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is MOST directly related to: Select one: A. shrinkage of the brain. B. a decrease in neurons. C. meningeal deterioration. D. blood vessel dilation. 6. You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that: Select one: A. an infant's head should be placed in a flexed position to prevent obstruction. B. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times. C. the infant's proportionately small tongue often causes an airway obstruction. D. assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs. 7. Physical changes that typically occur in early adults include an: Select one: A. increase in height because of spinal disc expansion. B. increase in muscle strength and reflexes. C. increase in fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain. D. increase in respiratory rate due to increased metabolism. 8. Atherosclerosis is defined as . Select one: A. constriction of the blood vessels B. the blockage of a coronary artery C. dilation of the arteries D. the buildup of plaque inside blood vessels 9. Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the adolescent age group? Select one: A. The normal pulse rate steadily increases. B. Muscle and bone growth both decrease. C. The systolic blood pressure decreases. D. Secondary sexual development begins. 10. In preconventional reasoning, children: Select one: A. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want. B. make decisions based on their conscience. C. look for approval from their peers and society. D. blame their actions on what they have observed in older children. #8 1. Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should: Select one: A. slide a long backboard under his buttocks and lay him sideways on the board. B. apply a vest-style extrication device before attempting to move the patient. C. direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head. D. apply a cervical collar and quickly remove the patient with a clothes drag. 2. The MOST serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: Select one: A. unnecessarily wasting time. B. injury to you or your patient. C. causing patient anxiety or fear. D. confusion among team members. 3. Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct? Select one: A. Most of the patient's weight rests on the foot end of the stretcher. B. A semi-sitting patient's weight is equally distributed on both ends. C. The EMT at the patient's head will bear the least amount of weight. D. The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso. 4. The proper technique for using the power grip is to: Select one: A. hold the handle with your fingers. B. lift with your palms up. C. position your hands about 6² apart. D. rotate your palms down. 5. As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should : Select one: A. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance. B. guide your partner while moving the chair backwards. C. reposition your hands and continue to move the patient. D. stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs. 6. In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include: Select one: A. a collapsible undercarriage. B. increased stability from a wider wheelbase. C. weight capacity of up to 650 lb. D. two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher. 7. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury? Select one: A. Wheeled stretcher B. Scoop stretcher C. Long backboard D. Portable stretcher 8. You are attending to a 34-year-old male patient who requires transport to the hospital for assessment of his chronic back pain. The patient weighs over 750 pounds. Your bariatric stretcher has a wider surface area to allow for: Select one: A. better stability when moving the patient on uneven ground. B. increased lifting capacity and patient weight load. C. increased patient comfort and dignity. D. increased stability and leverage when lifting with more than two providers. 9. To protect a restrained patient and prevent him from using leverage to break free, the EMT should secure . Select one: A. both arms above the head B. only the patient's torso C. one arm above the head D. both arms at the patient's sides 10. You are attending to a 22-year-old female patient who has overdosed. The patient is unresponsive in an upstairs bedroom. The most appropriate way to bring the patient downstairs is: Select one: A. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the foot end. B. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the head end. C. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the foot end. D. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the head end. 1. Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should: Select one: A. slide a long backboard under his buttocks and lay him sideways on the board. B. apply a vest-style extrication device before attempting to move the patient. C. direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head. D. apply a cervical collar and quickly remove the patient with clothes drag. 2. The MOST serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: Select one: A. unnecessarily wasting time. B. injury to you or your patient. C. causing patient anxiety or fear. D. confusion among team members. 3. Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct? A. Most of the patient's weight rests on the foot end of the stretcher. B. A semi-sitting patient's weight is equally distributed on both ends. C. The EMT at the patient's head will bear the least amount of weight. D. The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso. 4. The proper technique for using the power grip is to: A. hold the handle with your fingers. B. lift with your palms up. C. position your hands about 6² apart. D. rotate your palms down. 5. As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should: Select one: A. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance. B. guide your partner while moving the chair backwards. C. reposition your hands and continue to move the patient. D. stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs. 6. In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include: Select one: A. a collapsible undercarriage. B. increased stability from a wider wheelbase. C. weight capacity of up to 650 lb. D. two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher. 7. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury? Select one: A. Wheeled stretcher B. Scoop stretcher C. Long backboard D. Portable stretcher 8. You are attending to a 34-year-old male patient who requires transport to the hospital for assessment of his chronic back pain. The patient weighs over 750 pounds. Your bariatric stretcher has a wider surface area to allow for: Select one: A. better stability when moving the patient on uneven ground. B. increased lifting capacity and patient weight load. C. increased patient comfort and dignity. D. increased stability and leverage when lifting with more than two providers. 9. To protect a restrained patient and prevent him from using leverage to break free, the EMT should secure . Select one: A. both arms above the head B. only the patient's torso C. one arm above the head D. Both arms at the patient's sides 10. You are attending to a 22-year-old female patient who has overdosed. The patient is unresponsive in an upstairs bedroom. The most appropriate way to bring the patient downstairs is: A. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the foot end. B. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the head end. C. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the foot end. D. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the head end. #9 1. When approaching a 32-year-old male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain, you should: Select one: A. assess his mental status by having him move his head. B. approach him from behind and ask him not to move. C. stand behind him and immediately stabilize his head. D. ensure that the patient can see you approaching him. 2. An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. Your initial care should focus on: Select one: A. providing immediate transport. B. gathering medical history data. C. obtaining baseline vital signs. D. airway, breathing, and circulation. 3. An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score? Select one: A. Opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain B. Opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal flexion C. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain D. Eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal extension 5. You should suspect that a patient is experiencing respiratory failure if he or she: Select one: A. is anxious, tachycardic, and leaning forward. B. has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone. C. has an increased heart rate and retractions. D. is restless and is working hard to breathe. 6. A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious. He is screaming in pain and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should: Select one: A. ensure that his airway is patent. B. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. C. elevate his legs and keep him warm. D. apply direct pressure to the wound. 7 . The rapid exam of a patient that occurs following the primary assessment should take no longer than: Select one: A. 60 to 90 seconds. B. 90 to 120 seconds. C. 120 to 180 seconds. D. 30 seconds. 8. The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the: Select one: A. most life-threatening condition that you discover. B. most serious thing the patient is concerned about. C. gross physical signs that you detect on assessment. D. condition that exacerbates an underlying problem 9. Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct? Select one: A. The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint. B. During the secondary assessment, the EMT's primary focus should be on taking the patient's vital signs and obtaining a SAMPLE history. C. The secondary assessment should be performed en route to the hospital, regardless of the severity of the patient's condition. D. A secondary assessment should always be performed, even if you must continually manage life threats that were identified in the primary assessment. 10. Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause an altered level of consciousness? Select one: A. Drug overdose B. Poisoning C. Acute anxiety D. Inadequate perfusion 11. Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass- casualty incident should be determined after: Select one: A. a physician arrives at the scene. B. area hospitals have been notified. C. all the patients have been triaged. D. the number of patients is known. #10 1. The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called: A. diffusion. B. ventilation. C. respiration. D. oxygenation. 2. A man was found unresponsive in his bed at home. There is no evidence of injury and the patient's medical history is not known. The patient's face is cyanotic, yet the pulse oximeter reads 98%. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this? A. His extremities are cold B. Increased body temperature C. Severe pulmonary edema D. Carbon monoxide poisoning 3. Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called: Select one: A. agonal respirations. B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations. C. ataxic respirations. D. eupneic respirations. 4. Which of the following patients is breathing adequately? Select one: A. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin B. An unconscious 52-year-old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin C. A conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume D. A conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations 5. What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly? Select one: A. Minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate. B. The majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolar–capillary membrane. C. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange. D. Air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respirations. 6. Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct? Select one: A. The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries. B. The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase. C. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries. D. Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has low levels of carbon dioxide. 7. How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems? Select one: A. It prevents alveolar collapse by pushing air into the lungs during inhalation. B. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which allows more room for lung expansion. C. It forces the alveoli open and pushes oxygen across the alveolar membrane. D. It pushes thick, infected pulmonary secretions into isolated areas of the lung. 8. You are ventilating a patient with a stoma; however, air is escaping from the mouth and nose. To prevent this, you should: Select one: A. thoroughly suction the stoma. B. ventilate with less pressure. C. seal the mouth and nose. D. thrust the jaw forward. 9. Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway? Select one: A. Oropharynx B. Bronchus C. Larynx D. Pharynx 10. Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position? Select one: A. A 24-year-old unconscious female who overdosed and has a reduced tidal volume B. A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing C. A 40-year-old conscious female with a possible neck injury and regular respirations D. A 19-year-old conscious male with a closed head injury and normal respirations Feedback #11 1. Which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct? Select one: A. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications. B. Parenteral medications are absorbed by the body through the digestive system. C. Compared to enteral medications, parenteral medications have fewer side effects. D. Tylenol is an example of a parenteral medication because it is taken orally. 2, Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? Select one: A. Glucose is usually administered by the EMT via the intravenous route. B. Glucose is a complex sugar that rapidly absorbs into the bloodstream. C. Glucose is given to patients who are suspected of being hyperglycemic. D. Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream. 3. Activated charcoal is an example of a(n): Select one: A. elixir. B. suspension. C. solution. D. gel. 4. What is the route of administration for the EpiPen auto-injector? Select one: A. Intramuscular B. Intraosseous C. Sublingual D. Intravenous 5. Which of the following is required for an EMT to administer a drug to a patient? Select one: A. An alert adult patient B. A patient with stable vital signs C. Medical direction approval D. A patient with an altered level of consciousness 6. After taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for an allergic reaction, a person begins experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are an example of a(n): Select one: A. untoward effect. B. unpredictable effect. C. therapeutic effect. D. side effect. 7. The amount of medication that is given is known as the . Select one: A. side effect B. dose C. contraindication D. indication 8. A 62-year-old male is seen with crushing chest pain, which he describes as being the same kind of pain that he had with a previous heart attack. He has prescribed nitroglycerin but states that he has not taken any. After administering supplemental oxygen if needed and contacting medical control, you should: Select one: A. begin immediate transport and request a rendezvous with a paramedic unit. B. administer the nitroglycerin unless he has taken Viagra within the past 72 hours. C. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg. D. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin before assessing his blood pressure. 9. When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes atorvastatin (Lipitor) and amlodipine (Norvasc). These medications suggest a history of: Select one: A. reactive airway disease. B. bacterial infection. C. non–insulin-dependent diabetes. D. cardiovascular disease. 10. You are dispatched to a state park for a young female experiencing an allergic reaction. Your assessment reveals that her breathing is severely labored and her blood pressure is very low. You carry epinephrine auto-injectors on your ambulance and have been trained and approved by your medical director to administer them. As your partner gives the patient supplemental oxygen, you attempt to contact medical control but do not have a signal from your cell phone. You should: Select one: A. notify dispatch and request that a paramedic unit respond to the scene so they can administer epinephrine to the patient. B. immediately load the patient into the ambulance, begin transport, and reattempt to contact medical control when you receive a cell signal. C. place her in a supine position, keep her warm, begin transport to the hospital, and request a paramedic intercept en route. D. administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital. #12 1. When should nonlifesaving interventions be performed for your multisystem trauma patient? Select one: A. En route to the hospital B. During the primary assessment C. Immediately after the injuries are discovered D. Prior to transport 2. You suspect your patient is in shock. You note the patient's skin is pale. This is likely due to . Select one: A. peripheral vasoconstriction B. an increased heart rate C. hypothermia D. peripheral vasodilation 3. To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as: Select one: A. the lungs. B. the brain. C. the skin. D. the heart. 4. Distributive shock occurs when: Select one: A. temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain. B. an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function. C. severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster. D. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds. 5. What are the three components of the “perfusion triangle”? Select one: A. Heart, blood vessels, blood B. Heart, brain, lungs C. Arteries, veins, capillaries D. Plasma, red blood cells, platelets 6. Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: Select one: A. anaphylactic shock. B. cardiogenic shock. C. neurogenic shock. D. septic shock. 7. When treating an 80-year-old patient who is in shock, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. compensation from the respiratory system usually manifests with increased tidal volume. B. changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting. C. the older patient's central nervous system usually reacts more briskly to compensate for shock. D. medications older patients take for hypertension often cause a 8. Foods, medications, and insects are common causes of . Select one: A. psychogenic shock B. neurogenic shock C. septic shock D. anaphylactic shock 9. Your patient is in shock, but the body's defense mechanisms are currently able to maintain adequate circulation. This is called . Select one: A. decompensated shock B. irreversible shock C. compensated shock D. late shock 10. A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should: Select one: A. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist. B. apply pressure to the brachial artery. C. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen. D. wrap the towel with pressure bandages. #13 1, Without practice, your CPR skills will . Select one: A. come back automatically when needed B. become part of your muscle memory C. improve over time D. deteriorate over time 2, The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-decompression CPR by: Select one: A. maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression. B. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling. C. drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the heart. D. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles. 3, Basic life support (BLS) is defined as: Select one: A. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the scene of an emergency. B. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management. C. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest. D. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses. 4, Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. gastric distention. (blot) B. liver laceration. C. a fractured sternum. D. rib fractures. 5, CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is: Select one: A. on a firm surface. B. horizontal. C. supine. D. prone. 6, In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: Select one: A. severe chest trauma. B. a drug overdose. C. respiratory arrest. D. a cardiac dysrhythmia. 7, While rescuer one is finishing his or her fifth cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should: Select one: A. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest. B. assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds. C. give two breaths and prepare to start compressions. D. suction the patient's mouth and give two more ventilations. 8, CPR should be initiated when: Select one: A. rigor mortis is obvious. B. signs of putrefaction are present. C. the carotid pulse is very weak. D. a valid living will is unavailable. 9, Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should: Select one: A. tilt the head back while lifting up on the patient's neck. B. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver. C. try opening the airway by lifting up on the chin. D. suction the airway and reattempt the jaw-thrust maneuver. 10, Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should: Select one: A. apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns. B. move the patch to another area of the patient's chest and then properly apply the AED pads. C. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads. D. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch. #14 1, When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should: Select one: A. transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital. B. have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away. C. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible. D. perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient. 2, Assessment of the medical patient is usually focused on the . Select one: A. field diagnosis B. associated symptoms C. nature of illness D. medical history 3, Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for complications caused by the influenza virus? Select one: A. 50-year-old woman moderate obesity B. 12-year-old child with a fractured arm C. 39-year-old man with mild hypertension D. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes 4, When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms. B. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first. C. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured. D. it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs. 5, An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body. B. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms. C. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs. D. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional. 6, You are attending to a 27-year-old male driver of a car. According to his passenger, the patient had been acting strangely while driving, then slumped forward against the steering wheel, apparently unconscious. The car drove off the road and struck a telephone pole. The patient remains unconscious, and physical assessment reveals only a large hematoma on his right forehead with no other physical signs. Your patient is a diabetic who had been under a lot of stress lately and may have missed meals. This is an example of a: Select one: A. medical emergency. B. combination of a medical and trauma emergency. C. combination of a psychiatric and trauma emergency. D. trauma emergency. 7, After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to: Select one: A. quickly access the patient. B. contact medical control. C. notify law enforcement. D. take standard precautions. 8, Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition? Select one: A. Depression B. Alzheimer disease C. Schizophrenia D. Substance abuse 9, It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected problem. Select one: A. endocrine B. cardiac C. respiratory D. neurologic 10, In 2009, the H1N1 virus accounted for over 200,000 deaths worldwide in the form of the swine flu. In 1919, a similar outbreak of the H1N1 occurred in the form of the Spanish flu. Starting in Kansas City, the virus spread rapidly worldwide, claiming up to 50 million lives. These are both examples of: Select one: A. uncontrolled outbreaks. B. epidemics. C. parasitic infection. D. pandemics. (through out the country or the world) Epidemics ( through out the community) #16 1, A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: Select one: A. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding. B. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract. C. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. D. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. 2, the electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the: Select one: A. sinoatrial node. B. coronary sinus. C. atrioventricular node. D. bundle of His. 3, Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the: Select one: A. left ventricle. B. right atrium. C. left atrium. D. right ventricle. 4, A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced? Select one: A. Thoracic aortic aneurysm B. Acute myocardial infarction C. Uncontrolled hypertension D. Obstructive lung disease 5, A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should: Select one: A. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure. B. give her high-flow oxygen, attach the AED, and transport at once. C. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further. D. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice. 6, When preparing to obtain a 12-lead ECG, the “LL” and “RL” electrodes should be placed: Select one: A. on the thighs or ankles. B. anywhere on the arms. C. on either side of the chest. D. on the lower abdomen. 7, Signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency would MOST likely be delayed in patients who: Select one: A. have had a stroke in the past. B. have chronic hypertension. C. are older than 40 years of age. D. regularly take illegal drugs. 8, Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure? Select one: A. Labored breathing B. Flat jugular veins C. Dependent edema D. Pulmonary edema 9, Angina pectoris occurs when: Select one: A. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand. B. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm. C. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply. D. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque. 10. You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who collapsed about 5 minutes ago. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care. You should: Select one: A. immediately apply the AED pads and analyze his cardiac rhythm. B. have your partner perform CPR while you question the bystanders. C. perform two-rescuer CPR for 5 minutes and request ALS backup. D. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible. #17 1. The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is: Select one: A. severe stress. B. heavy exertion. C. diabetes mellitus. D. hypertension. 2, A 30-year-old male experienced a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure, which stopped before you arrived at the scene. The patient is conscious, is answering your questions appropriately, and refuses EMS transport. Which of the following would be the MOST compelling reason to disagree with his refusal of transport? Select one: A. His wife states that this was his “usual” seizure B. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15 C. He is currently not prescribed any medications D. He has experienced seizures since he was 20 3, When assessing for arm drift of a patient with a suspected stroke, you should: Select one: A. observe movement of the arms for approximately 2 minutes. B. expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patient's side. C. ask the patient to hold his or her arms up with the palms down. D. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment. 4, When you are obtaining medical history from the family of a suspected stroke patient, it is MOST important to determine: Select one: A. if there is a family history of a stroke. B. when the patient last appeared normal. C. if the patient has been hospitalized before. D. the patient's overall medication compliance. 5, Which of the following MOST accurately describes a simple partial seizure? Select one: A. A generalized seizure without incontinence B. A seizure that begins in one extremity C. A seizure that is not preceded by an aura D. A seizure that causes the patient to stare blankly 6, During the primary assessment of a semiconscious 70-year-old female, you should: Select one: A. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assist ventilations. B. immediately determine the patient's blood glucose level. C. ensure a patent airway and support ventilation as needed. D. ask family members if the patient has a history of stroke. 7, You are caring for a 68-year-old man with sudden onset of left- sided paralysis and slurred speech. His airway is patent, his respirations are 14 breaths/min with adequate depth, and his oxygen saturation is 98%. Treatment for this patient should include: Select one: A. oral glucose gel and transport. B. ventilatory assistance and transport. C. recovery position and transport. D. high-flow oxygen and transport. 8, Your patient opens his eyes, moans, and pulls away from you when you pinch his trapezius muscle. You should assign a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of: Select one: A. 8. B. 7. C. 6. D. 9. 9, Interruption of cerebral blood flow may result from all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a thrombus. B. an acute arterial rupture. C. cerebral vasodilation. 10, A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing: Select one: A. dysarthria. B. dysphagia. C. aphasia. D. paraplegia. #18 1. Your patient complains of chronic “burning” stomach pain that improves after eating. You should suspect: Select one: A. kidney stones. B. pneumonia. C. peptic ulcer disease. D. aortic aneurysm. 2, A 47-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain of 3 hours' duration. His abdomen is distended and guarded. Your MOST important consideration for this patient should be to: Select one: A. be alert for signs and symptoms of shock. B. transport him in a supine position. C. assess his blood pressure to determine perfusion adequacy. D. determine the exact location and cause of his pain. 3, Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space? Select one: A. Pancreas B. Spleen C. Liver D. Gallbladder 4, Which of the following is correct about the secondary assessment for a high-priority patient? Select one: A. Never contact medical direction before completing the secondary assessment. B. Never perform a secondary assessment on a high-priority patient. C. You may not have time to complete a secondary assessment. D. The secondary assessment must be performed prior to transport. 5, A young female presents with costovertebral angle tenderness. She is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Which of the following organs is MOST likely causing her pain? Select one: A. Pancreas B. Liver C. Kidney D. Gallbladder 6, When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you should: Select one: A. palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction, beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful. B. observe for abdominal guarding, which is characterized by sudden relaxation of the abdominal muscles when palpated. C. ask the patient to point to the area of pain or tenderness and assess for rebound tenderness over that specific area. D. visually assess the painful area of the abdomen, but avoid palpation because this could worsen his or her condition. 7, Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to: Select one: A. sit fully upright because it helps relax the abdominal muscles. B. sit in a semi-Fowler position with their knees slightly bent. C. lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen. D. lie in a supine position with their knees in a flexed position. 8, Peritonitis may result in shock because: Select one: A. fluid shifts from the bloodstream into body tissues. B. severe pain causes systemic dilation of the vasculature. C. abdominal distention impairs cardiac contractions. D. intra-abdominal hemorrhage is typically present. 9, Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct? Select one: A. The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the gallbladder and liver. B. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized. C. The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that becomes inflamed or irritated. D. An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal organs. 10, A 30-year-old woman with a history of alcoholism presents with severe upper abdominal pain and is vomiting large amounts of bright red blood. Her skin is cool, pale, and clammy; her heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak; and her blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg. Your MOST immediate action should be to: Select one: A. keep her supine and keep her warm. B. rapidly transport her to the hospital. C. protect her airway from aspiration. D. give her high-flow supplemental oxygen. #19 1, A 37-year-old female with a history of diabetes presents with excessive urination and weakness of 2 days' duration. Her blood glucose level reads 320 mg/dL. If this patient's condition is not promptly treated, she will MOST likely develop: Select one: A. acidosis and dehydration. B. hypoxia and overhydration. C. severe insulin shock. D. irreversible renal failure. 2, Excessive eating caused by cellular “hunger” is called: Select one: A. polydipsia. B. polyphagia. C. dysphasia. D. dyspepsia. 3, Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include: Select one: A. warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; and deep, slow respirations. B. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations. C. warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; and rapid respirations. D. cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; and deep, rapid respirations. 4, Symptomatic hypoglycemia will MOST likely develop if a patient: Select one: A. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin. B. eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion. C. markedly overeats and misses an insulin dose. D. misses one or two prescribed insulin injections. 5, A man finds his 59-year-old wife unconscious on the couch. He states that she takes medications for type 2 diabetes. He further tells you that his wife has been ill recently and has not eaten for the past 24 hours. Your assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive. You should: Select one: A. administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. open and maintain her airway and assess breathing. C. administer oral glucose between her cheek and gum. D. assess for the presence of a medical identification tag. 6, A patient with hypoglycemia will often present with which of the following signs/symptoms? Select one: A. Pale, cool, and clammy skin B. Hypertension C. Warm, red, and dry skin D. Deep, rapid respirations 7, A patient with an altered mental status; high blood glucose levels; and deep, rapid breathing may have a condition known as . Select one: A. diabetic ketoacidosis B. hyperglycemic crisis C. hypoglycemic crisis D. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma 8, In contrast to type 1 diabetes, type 2 diabetes: Select one: A. is caused by a complete lack of insulin in the body. B. is caused by resistance to insulin at the cellular level. C. is commonly diagnosed in children and young adults. D. occurs when antibodies attack insulin-producing cells. 9, The two main types of cells contained in blood are called . Select one: A. erythrocytes and leukocytes B. platelets and plasma C. hemoglobin A and S D. transport and clotting 10, During your assessment of a 19-year-old male, you are told that he is being treated with factor VIII. This indicates that: Select one: A. his blood clots too quickly. B. he has thrombophilia. C. he has a thrombosis. D. he has hemophilia A. #20 1, Which of the following signs/symptoms are indicative of respiratory involvement of an allergic reaction? Select one: A. Flushed, itching, or burning skin B. A sense of impending doom C. Tightness in the chest or throat D. All of these answers are correct. 2, Anaphylaxis is MOST accurately defined as a(n): Select one: A. moderate allergic reaction that primarily affects the vasculature. B. allergic reaction that causes bronchodilation and vasoconstriction. C. severe allergic reaction that typically resolves without treatment. D. extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems. 3, After administering 0.3 mg of epinephrine via auto-injector to a 22-year-old woman with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and dissipation of her hives. However, she is still anxious and tachycardic. You should: Select one: A. consider administering 0.15 mg of epinephrine to completely resolve her allergic reaction. B. transport her rapidly, as it is obvious that she is having a severe reaction to the epinephrine. C. contact medical control and obtain authorization to administer another 0.3 mg of epinephrine. D. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine. 4, When an allergic reaction (time) proceeds to life-threatening anaphylaxis, it will usually do so . Select one: A. slowly, over more than 30 minutes. B. slowly, over several hours. C. quickly, within 30 seconds. D. quickly, within 30 minutes. 5. Urticaria is the medical term for: Select one: A. burning. B. hives. C. a wheal. D. swelling. 6, The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within following administration. Select one: A. 30 seconds B. 30 minutes C. 1 hour D. 1 minute 7, Which of the following would MOST likely provide clues regarding the source of a patient's allergic reaction? Select one: A. The environment in which the patient is found B. The patient's family history C. The time of year in which the exposure occurred D. The patient's general physical appearance 8. Epinephrine stimulates the response, increasing blood pressure and relieving bronchospasm. Select one: A. respiratory B. sympathetic C. cardiac D. parasympathetic 9, A 37-year-old male is having a severe allergic reaction to penicillin. He does not have an epinephrine auto-injector and your protocols do not allow you to carry epinephrine on the ambulance. How should you proceed with the treatment of this patient? Select one: A. Administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic intercept. B. Remain at the scene with the patient and request a paramedic ambulance. C. Ask the patient if he has any diphenhydramine tablets that you can administer. D. Quickly determine if there are any bystanders who may carry epinephrine. 10, Care for a victim of an immunologic emergency who is severely hypotensive should include which of the following? Select one: A. Position the patient's airway and initiate positive-pressure ventilations. B. Routine spinal immobilization due to the potential for traumatic injury C. Apply high-flow oxygen therapy, place the patient in a shock position, and help maintain the patient's body temperature. #21 1, Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of: Select one: A. oxycodone (Percocet). B. crack cocaine. C. amphetamine sulfate (Benzedrine). D. ecstasy. 2, Which of the following questions would be LEAST pertinent during the initial questioning of a patient who ingested a substance? Select one: A. Why was the substance ingested? B. How long ago was the substance taken? C. What type of substance was taken? D. How much of the substance was taken? 3, An overdose of acetaminophen, the active ingredient in Tylenol, will MOST likely cause: Select one: A. gastric ulcers. B. liver failure. C. kidney fai