Summary PCP 101-109 Quizzes All Answered A+ Guide.

PCP 101-109 Quizzes All Answered A+ Guide. Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct? A. HIV cannot enter the bloodstream through intact skin. B. A vaccination for HIV is available for EMS personnel. C. Most patients infected with HIV have signs and symptoms. D. HIV is an acute bacterial infection that affects the lymph nodes. Under which of the following situations would the practitioner NOT have a legal duty to act? A. Your ambulance responds to the scene of a drowning. B. You initiate bleeding control of a man who was shot. C. You are off duty and encounter a man in cardiac arrest. D. You are dispatched to a call within your jurisdiction. While treating a responsive and alert patient with a serious illness, your partner starts an IV, but does not explain the procedure to the patient. Your partner's inaction MOST accurately constitutes: A. assault. B. battery. C. an unethical act. D. gross negligence. Which of the following physiologic responses is common during an acute stress reaction? A. Decreased respirations B. Pupillary constriction C. Bradycardia and hypotension D. Increased blood glucose levels When treating an anxious and uncooperative patient with chest pain, you state, "If you don't settle down, I am going to put a large IV in your arm." What is this an example of? A. Libel B. Slander C. Assault D. BatteryWhile caring for a 40-year-old male with shortness of breath and a history of tuberculosis, the practitioner should place a: A. surgical mask on himself and a nasal cannula on the patient. B. HEPA respirator on the patient and a surgical mask on himself. C. surgical mask on himself and a nonrebreathing mask on the patient. D. HEPA respirator on himself and a nonrebreathing mask on the patient. A circular system of ongoing internal and external reviews is known as: A. advanced life support review. B. retrospective patient care analysis. C. quarterly audits of EMS systems. D. continuous quality improvement. A practitioner witnessed a call in which his partner gave adequate physical care; however, he was deliberately rude because the patient was thought to be infected with HIV. The practitioner ignored his partner's treatment of this patient and took no steps to prevent this behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the practitioner is considered: A. legal and ethical. B. legal but unethical. C. illegal but ethical. D. illegal and unethical. Physical signs that indicate an emotionally disturbed patient may become violent include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. inability to sit still. B. large physical stature. C. bizarre speech patterns. D. tense or rigid posture. Which of the following is your BEST protection against being accused of defamation of character? A. Documenting objective findings only. B. Not speaking with anyone regarding a call. C. Reporting patient information only to a physician. D. Documenting personal opinions in quotation marks. Even with an EMS certification, your ability to function as a practitoner is governed locally by the:A. Provincial health department. B. Alberta Government of Health C. EMS system's medical director. D. EMS system's chief paramedic. Which of the following statements would be MOST appropriate to make to the family member of a patient who has just died? A. Things will get better in time. B. You're not the only one who suffers. C. This must be hard for you to accept. D. I know exactly what you are experiencing. Which of the following is a presumptive sign of death? A. Lack of a palpable pulse B. Tissue decomposition C. Dismemberment at the waist D. Pooling of blood to the back As a practitoner, you may have to function as an advocate for your patient. This involves: A. paying for the patient's medical bills. B. determining the patient's primary physician. C. protecting the best interests of the patient. D. transporting the patient to the hospital of your choice. A practitoner administers the wrong medication to a patient. This is an example of: A. a rules-based error. B. a skills-based error. C. a knowledge-based error. D. an administrative error. When assisting with the delivery of a baby, the minimum standard precautions you should take include: A. gloves, mask, and gown. B. gloves, mask, gown, and eye protection. C. mask, gown, and thorough handwashing. D. eye protection, gloves, and a HEPA respirator.Being aware and thoughtful about the needs of your patient describes the attribute of: A. empathy. B. integrity. C. sympathy. D. patient advocacy. The concept of standard precautions assumes that: A. only blood, semen, and vaginal secretions can transmit communicable diseases to health care providers. B. patients with bloodborne diseases such as HIV or hepatitis B can transmit the disease by coughing. C. every patient is potentially infected or can spread an organism that could be transmitted in the health care setting. D. a patient is not capable of transmitting a communicable disease unless he or she is coughing or sneezing. You respond to a call for a 56-year-old man with a severe headache and nausea. He asks you to take him to a local community hospital. What type of consent has this patient given to you? A. Expressed consent B. Implied consent C. Informed consent D. Passive consent An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to: A. ignore the patient' s feelings and focus on his/her medical complaint. B. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful. C. reassure your patient everything will be all right, even if it will not be. D. demand that the patient be quiet and cooperative during transport. Warning signs of stress include which of the following? A. Indecisiveness B. Increased appetite C. Increased sexual drive D. Willingness to work extra shifts You respond to a call for an 16-year-old boy who injured his arm. As you are assessing the child, he tells you that he does not want you to touch him. His mother tells you to begin treatment and transport the child to the hospital if necessary. What should you do?A. Determine if the child is mentally competent. B. Ask the mother why she wants her son treated and transported. C. Advise the mother that you cannot legally treat her child. D. Continue your assessment and transport if necessary. You are dispatched for a young male who, according to witnesses, is "not acting right." The patient is found sitting on the ground outside of a grocery store, rocking back and forth. He has blood on his arm from an apparent wound to his wrist. You should: A. quickly make contact with him and control the bleeding from his wrist. B. talk to him as you approach him, but be prepared for him to turn violent. C. ask the patient to stand up so you can assess his balance and coordination. D. recognize that his movements are purposeful and do not suggest violence. You are assessing a seriously ill patient when he suddenly becomes very angry and starts yelling at you. After ensuring your own safety, you should: A. remain tolerant and avoid becoming defensive. B. take the patient's anger as a personal attack. C. immediately disengage from care of the patient. D. ask the patient if he has any psychiatric problems. While triaging patients at a multiple-casualty incident, you encounter a 40-year-old female with an obvious fracture of her right forearm and multiple abrasions to her face and arms. She is responsive and alert and does not appear to have any airway or breathing problems. You note that she is wearing an organ donor bracelet. You should: A. give her high-flow oxygen in order to keep her vital organs viable. B. apply a splint to her arm injury and continue triaging the other patients. C. assign her an appropriate triage category and move to the next patient. D. place her in a high-priority treatment category because of her donor status. While treating a patient with severe hypoxia and inadequate breathing, a practitioner applies lowflow oxygen with a nasal cannula. Upon arrival at the hospital, the patient develops respiratory arrest. What is this situation an example of? A. Abandonment B. Gross negligence C. Exceeding the scope of practice D. Following the current standard of care If you use a waterless handwashing substitute in the field, it is important to:A. thoroughly wash your hands with water as soon as possible. B. allow the solution to evaporate without rubbing your hands together. C. immediately dry the waterless substitute from your hands with a paper towel. D. avoid washing your hands with water as it will deactivate the waterless substitute. A physician authorizes you, via two-way radio, to help a patient administer prescribed nitroglycerin. What type of medical direction is this? A. Standing order B. Off-line medical control C. Online medical control D. Indirect medical control A critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) should ideally be held within how many hours after the incident? A. 2-3 hours B. 6-12 hours C. 12-24 hours D. 24-72 hours Which of the following patients has the legal right to refuse treatment? A. Confused 17-year-old male with hypoglycemia B. Disoriented 60-year-old male with a possible stroke C. Responsive and alert 45-year-old male with chest pressure D. Responsive and alert 15-year-old male with abdominal pain You arrive at the scene of a domestic dispute. You can hear yelling and the sound of breaking glass from inside the residence. You should: A. immediately gain access to the patient. B. carefully enter the house and call law enforcement. C. tell the patient to come outside so you can provide care. D. retreat to a safe place until the scene has been secured. In which of the following situations would the practitioner have a legal duty to act? A. At all times, whether you are on duty or off duty. B. Arriving at a motor-vehicle crash outside your jurisdiction. C. You initiate CPR on a young child outside of your jurisdiction. D. Encountering a man in cardiac arrest while you are off duty.Common hazards associated with a structural fire include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. carbon dioxide deficiency. B. high ambient temperatures. C. decreased oxygen availability. D. the risk of building collapse. After being told of the death of her husband, a middle-aged woman asks, "Why are you lying to me?" What stage of the grieving process is this typical of? A. Anger B. Bargaining C. Depression D. Denial Which of the following general statements regarding infectious diseases is correct? A. All contagious diseases are infectious. B. All infectious diseases are contagious. C. Pneumonia is a contagious disease process. D. Hepatitis B is infectious, but not contagious. Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts assault? A. Starting an IV without the patient's consent. B. Telling a patient to calm down or you will start an IV. C. Taking a patient's blood pressure when they are refusing care. D. Telling a violent patient that you may have to restrain him if necessary. You respond to the home of a 75-year-old man who is in cardiac arrest. The family states that the patient is terminally ill and has an advance directive; however, they are unable to locate it. How should you manage this situation? A. Begin CPR and contact medical control. B. Honor the family's wishes and call the coroner. C. Initiate full resuscitative measures and transport promptly. D. Allow the family to locate the document and then decide on further action. You respond to a nursing home's call regarding an older patient who fell. During your assessment, you note injuries that are not consistent with the mechanism described. You should: A. ask the staff if the patient was abused.B. notify the police before initiating care. C. transport the patient and report your suspicions. D. document that you believe the patient was abused. You have just established an IV on a critically injured patient. As you prepare to dispose of the needle in the appropriate container, you get stuck with the needle. You should: A. immerse your wound in water or a sterile saline solution. B. report the incident to your supervisor as soon as possible. C. ignore the wound, since this was not a significant exposure. D. cease patient care and immediately seek medical attention. Which of the following statements regarding rescue breathing and disease transmission is correct? A. The pocket face mask with one-way valve provides better rescuer protection than the bagmask device B. Although disease transmission is unlikely, mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing is rarely necessary in the field C. The risk of disease transmission to the rescuer is higher when performing rescue breathing on older patients D. There are numerous documented cases of disease transmission following mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing When writing your patient care form involving an acutely intoxicated patient, you document that the patient was "drunk." What does this statement constitute? A. Libel B. Slander C. Negligence D. Breach of confidentiality You arrive at the scene of an overturned semi-trailer truck. There is an odd odor in the air and you can see material leaking from the truck. After ensuring that fire department and law enforcement personnel are notified, you should: A. use binoculars to try to read the placard. B. carefully assess the driver of the truck. C. rapidly extricate the driver from the truck. D. decontaminate the driver of the truck. Which of the following personnel are typically NOT involved in a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD)?A. Peer counselors B. Mental health professionals C. Workers directly involved in the incident. D. Supervisors of those involved in the incident. You and your partner are the first to arrive at a potential crime scene involving a critically injured patient. The scene is safe. Your FIRST priority is to: A. preserve potential evidence. B. wait for a crime scene investigation team. C. contact medical control for guidance. D. provide emergency care to the patient. Which of the following scenarios is an example of exposure via indirect contact? A. HIV is transmitted to from one person to another through sexual contact. B. A patient coughs up droplets of blood into the practitioner's eyes and mouth. C. a practitioner is stuck with a needle that she used to start an IV on a patient. D. An injured patient bleeds into an uncovered cut on the practitioner's forearm. En route to the hospital, a diabetic patient regains partial consciousness. He tells you that he feels fine and that he does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should: A. cease further treatment and have the patient sign a release. B. assess whether the patient's mental condition is impaired. C. tell that patient that once care is started it cannot be stopped. D. request that the police place the patient under protective custody. A self-motivated practitioner should be able to: A. perform or delegate multiple tasks ensuring efficiency and safety. B. discover problems and solve them without someone else's direction. C. use his or her persona to project a sense of trust and professionalism. D. perform consistently and firmly adhere to a code of honest behavior. You arrive at the scene of a 34-year-old woman with abdominal pain. As you begin talking to the patient, she extends her arm to allow your partner to take her blood pressure. What type of consent is this patient's action consistent with? A. Implied consent B. Informed consent C. Passive consentD. Expressed consent Which of the following statements regarding EMS research is correct? A. Research in EMS is usually only performed by the medical director B. practitioners will be involved in research typically through gathering data C. Evidence-based decision making is an ineffective way of improving care D. The goal of EMS research is to identify interventions that are ineffective For consent to be informed, the practitioner must: A. tell the patient where they are being transported. B. explain the risks and benefits of treatment. C. ensure the patient understands the potential costs. D. explain local EMS protocols to the patient. When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you note that a green cloud is being emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck; he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should: A. park downhill from the scene. B. ask the driver to exit the vehicle. C. position the ambulance upwind. D. quickly gain access to the patient. Operators of emergency vehicles must drive with the safety of others in mind. This concept is known as driving: A. within the law B. within intent C. with due regard D. in the emergency mode During the transport phase of an ambulance call, it is important to: A. converse with the patient and provide reassurance. B. reassess the patient only if he or she deteriorates. C. complete the run form before arrival at the hospital. D. reassess unstable patients at least every 15 minutes. While using lights and siren, most state laws permit an ambulance to: A. Drive as fast as the department allows.B. Carefully exceed the posted speed limit. C. Disregard all traffic control signals. D. Proceed through red lights without stopping. When transporting a patient who is secured to a backboard, it is important to: A. Place deceleration straps over the patient's shoulders. B. Place a folded towel or blanket under his or her head. C. Routinely elevate the head of the backboard 12". D. Use at least eight straps to secure the patient to the board. Of the following devices, which is not an essential item to carry on the ambulance for prehospital respiratory care: A. An adult and a pediatric nasal cannula B. Nonrebreather masks C. A portable oxygen delivery device D. An automatic transport ventilator Characteristics of a safe ambulance operator include: A. realizing that lights and siren will be effective traffic tools. B. the ability to operate an ambulance at a high rate of speed. C. an offensive attitude about driving during an emergency call. D. a positive attitude about the ability to tolerate other drivers. During an emergency response, the driver of the ambulance should: a. use the left hand to steer and the right hand to operate the siren b. keep the unit in the extreme right-hand lane c. add the required steering input sooner as vehicle speeds decrease d. be capable of acting properly under the stresses of emergency conditions When a helicopter is used during nighttime operations, you should avoid: A. placing flares within 25' of the aircraft after it has landed. B. using any lights, whether on the ground or in the air. C. shining any flashlights or spotlights at the helicopter. D. directing light toward the ground at the landing site. The main objective of traffic control at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is to: A. warn oncoming traffic and prevent another crash.B. facilitate a route for the media to access the scene. C. get oncoming traffic past the scene as soon as possible. D. prevent curious onlookers from observing the scene. Use of escort vehicles during an emergency response is often a: a. very quick way to respond b. way to make the ambulance driver's job easier c. more dangerous means of response d. means of decreasing the chance of collision A typical fixed ambulance oxygen delivery system consists of all the following EXCEPT: a. 800,000 litre replacement cylinder b. 3,000 litre reservoir c. two stage regulator d. reducing valve and yoke If you are going through a red light, you should: a. proceed rapidly and clear the intersection in a short time b. change the siren to indicate you are approaching c. slow down, stop briefly if required, and proceed d. slow down, but do not stop as others may think you are going to yield When using the siren a PCP should: a. have it sounded when their lights are on b. be prepared for erratic movements of motorists c. never assume that all motorists will hear it d. all of the above General guidelines for safe ambulance driving include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. assuming that other drivers will not see you. B. avoiding routes with heavy traffic congestion. C. regularly using the siren as much as possible. D. avoiding one-way streets whenever possible. In general, medivac helicopters should be utilized when: A. a patient has a time-dependent injury or illness and traffic conditions would cause a significant delay in definitive care.B. ground transport to the hospital exceeds 30 to 45 minutes, even if the patient's present condition is stable. C. a patient has been in cardiac arrest for more than 15 minutes and has not responded to CPR and defibrillation. D. ground transport would leave your service area without an ambulance for greater than 30 minutes. If your ambulance is parked facing traffic at an emergency scene, you should: a. turn on all spotlights b. turn off the headlights c. turn off the side warning lights d. turn off the rear warning lights Most provincial statutes allow emergency vehicle operators to: a. pass a stopped school bus with its red flashers on b. exceed the posted limit as long as life and property are not endangered c. proceed through a flashing red light at a railroad crossing d. all of the above A disposable oxygen humidifier should be considered for ambulance services that often transport patients on runs longer than: A. 2 hours. B. 3 hours. C. 4 hours. D. 1 hour. While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should: A. pass the bus only after all the children have exited. B. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing. C. back up and take an alternate route to the scene. D. slowly and carefully pass the bus on the left side. When working at the scene of a motor vehicle crash at night, you should NOT use: A. intermittent flashing devices. B. reflective vests. C. portable floodlights. D. road flares.Of the following items on an ambulance which is checked with the engine off: a. the dash mounted gauges b. the vehicle's warning lights c. the battery d. the windshield wiper operation Minimum staffing in the patient compartment of a basic life support (BLS) ambulance includes: A. a practitioner and an practitioner. B. a practitioner and a paramedic. C. at least two practitioners. D. at least one practitioner. When driving an ambulance on a multilane highway in emergency mode, you should: A. remain in the extreme left-hand lane. B. drive in the center lane of the highway. C. remain in the extreme right-hand lane. D. pass other drivers on the right side. A device used to carry patients over a long distance through rough terrain is a: a. stokes basket b. wheeled ambulance stretcher c. scoop stretcher d. reeves stretcher Which of the following steps is NOT a priority when you are preparing a patient for transport: a. check dressings and splints b. complete critical interventions c. perform a complete patient assessment d. secure the patient to a lifting device Safe driving guidelines include: a. choosing one-way streets to increase response time b. keeping your headlights on when parked facing traffic c. using the siren as little as possible en route to the hospital d. always staying at least 2, preferably 4 seconds, behind the vehicle in front of youFor ambulances that are responding to an emergency call, most regulations will: a. give ambulances the right-of-way b. change the right-of-way in specific cases c. allow ambulances to request the right-of-way d. exceed the speed limit if done in a safe manner As soon as you leave the hospital and are en route back to your station, you should inform the dispatcher: A. about the patient's clinical condition. B. of the name of the accepting physician. C. whether you are back in service. D. that you are prepared for another call. An ambulance is permitted to ignore posted parking signs: a. at all times b. in cities only c. if traffic can still get by d. when necessary in an emergency fashion When transporting a patient to the hospital, you should: A. secure the patient to the ambulance stretcher with at least two straps. B. generally exceed the posted speed limit by 10 to 20 mph. C. place the patient on a long backboard, even if no trauma is involved. D. be safe and get the patient to the hospital in the shortest practical time. You have just delivered a major trauma patient to the hospital. Shortly after departing the hospital, dispatch advises you of another call. The back of the ambulance is contaminated with bloody dressings and is in disarray, and you are in need of airway equipment and numerous other supplies. You should: A. proceed to the call, functioning only as an emergency medical responder. B. have your partner quickly clean the ambulance as you proceed to the call. C. quickly proceed to the call and clean and restock the ambulance afterwards. D. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit. You are en route to an emergency call when you approach a slow-moving vehicle on a two-way road. You can see oncoming traffic in the other lane. The driver has his windows up and does not realize that you are behind him. You should:A. remain at a safe distance until it is safe to pass. B. quickly pass the vehicle on the left side. C. use your public address (PA) system to alert the driver. D. pass the driver on the right-hand shoulder. Upon returning to your station following a run, you should disinfect the ambulance as needed. Disinfection is MOST accurately defined as: A. using heat as a means of removing all microbial contaminants. B. killing pathogenic agents with a chemical made for that purpose. C. removing dirt, dust, blood, or other grossly visible contaminants. D. destroying pathogenic agents by using potent disinfection means. Which of the following is an example of regional equipment or supplies? A. Snake bite kit B. Bronchodilator C. Oral glucose D. Vacuum splint For every emergency request, the dispatcher should routinely gather and record all of the following information, EXCEPT the: A. location of the patient(s). B. patient's medical history. C. nature of the call. D. caller's phone number. The purpose of a jump kit is to: A. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care. B. carry advanced life support equipment approved by the EMS medical director. C. facilitate defibrillation within 5 minutes after making patient contact. D. manage a critically injured patient until he or she is loaded into the ambulance. A type _____ ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed. A. III B. II C. IV D. IIt is 10:30 PM and you have requested air medical transport for a critically injured patient. When you arrive at the designated landing zone, you should: A. mark the landing site using personnel with flashlights. B. provide the flight crew with a patient status update. C. mark the proposed landing area with road flares. D. survey the area for power lines or other hazards. Upon arriving at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash at night, you find that the safest place to park your ambulance is in a direction that is facing oncoming traffic. You should: A. turn all warning lights off. B. place a flare near the crash. C. quickly access the patient. D. turn your headlights off. One factor contributing to unsafe driving conditions that the driver can control is: a. the day of the week b. time of day c. weather conditions d. speed of the vehicle Factors that can increase an EMS unit response time include all the following EXCEPT: a. time of day b. road maintenance and construction c. weather d. number of certified drivers in the unit The use of lights and siren on an ambulance: A. is required any time a patient is being transported to the hospital. B. signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way. C. allows other drivers to hear and see you from a great distance. D. legally gives the emergency vehicle operator the right of way. To be a safe ambulance operator you should always do the following EXCEPT: a. be tolerant of the other drivers on the road b. use warning lights and sirens when driving c. wear your glasses or contact if required d. have a positive attitude about your ability as a driverMaintaining a cushion of safety when operating an ambulance means: A. remaining in the far right-hand lane when transporting a critical patient and refraining from passing other motorists on the left side. B. keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirror's blind spots. C. driving about 2 to 3 seconds behind any vehicles in front of you and exceeding the posted speed limit by no more than 20 to 25 mph. D. driving at the posted speed limit, regardless of the patient's condition, and routinely using your lights and siren when driving on a freeway. The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called: A. sterilization. B. disinfection. C. high-level disinfection. D. cleaning. Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic injury, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then: A. observe the scene for safety hazards. B. carefully assess the mechanism of injury. C. quickly gain access to the patient. D. determine if additional units are needed. A portable oxygen cylinder should have a capacity of a minimum of ____ of oxygen. A. 250 L B. 500 L C. 750 L D. 1,000 L Cold packs should be carried on an EMS unit for: a. musculoskeletal injuries b. cardiac illness c. abdominal injuries d. respiratory illnessThe driver of an ambulance on an emergency call is operating warning lights and sirens. The operator is generally permitted to: a. disregard all traffic control signals b. drive as fast as the department allows c. drive at any speed without fear of punishment d. exceed the speed limit if done in a safe manner A 19-year-old female has just been extricated from her severely damaged car. She is on a long backboard and has been moved to a place of safety. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a rapid assessment. The patient is unconscious, has slow and shallow respirations, and has bilaterally closed femur deformities. You should: A. stabilize her legs with the pneumatic antishock garment. B. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. obtain baseline vital signs and transport at once. D. direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance. Your primary concern when arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is: A. gaining access to the patient(s). B. requesting additional resources. C. immediately beginning triage. D. surveying the area for hazards. When functioning at the scene of a motor vehicle crash in which a patient will require complex extrication, you should enter the vehicle and provide care to the patient: A. only if the patient has experienced a major injury. B. after rescue personnel have cut the battery cables. C. after receiving approval from the extrication leader. D. only after you believe the vehicle has been stabilized. A hiker was injured when he fell approximately 20' from a cliff. When you arrive at the scene, a member of the technical rescue group escorts you to the patient, who is positioned on a steep incline. The MOST appropriate method of immobilizing and moving the patient to the ambulance is to: A. immobilize his spine with a long backboard and place him in a basket stretcher. B. immobilize him to a long backboard and use the four-person carry to move him. C. apply a vest-style immobilization device and move him using a stair chair device. D. immobilize him with a short backboard and place him on the ambulance stretcher.Situational awareness is MOST accurately defined as: A. an ongoing process of information gathering and scene evaluation to determine appropriate strategies and tactics. B. the ability to recognize any possible issues once you arrive at the scene and act proactively to avoid a negative impact. C. predicting the presence of certain hazards at the scene after receiving initial information from the dispatcher. D. performing an initial scan of the scene in order to identify hazards that will pose an immediate threat to you and your crew. Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should: A. begin triage to determine injury severity. B. call medical control for further direction. C. immediately request additional resources. D. request law enforcement for traffic control. Which of the following statements regarding the rapid extrication technique is correct? A. The only indication for performing a rapid extrication is if the patient is not entrapped and is in cardiac arrest. B. Rapid extrication involves the use of heavy equipment to disentangle a patient from his or her crashed vehicle. C. It involves rapidly removing a patient from his or her vehicle after immobilizing him or her with a short backboard. D. The rapid extrication technique is indicated if the scene is unsafe and the patient is not entrapped in his or her vehicle. In contrast to simple access, complex access: A. involves forcible entry into a vehicle. B. is a skill commonly taught to practitioners. C. does not involve the breaking of glass. D. often involves simply unlocking a door. Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately _______ per cubic foot. A. 50 lb B. 100 lb C. 150 lbD. 200 lb Disentanglement involves: A. removing a patient from a dangerous position. B. the use of simple access tools such as a pry bar. C. extrication techniques that practitioners are trained in. D. gaining access to a patient in a crashed vehicle. Extrication is MOST accurately defined as: A. using heavy equipment to access a patient. B. dismantling an automobile to remove a victim. C. removal from a dangerous situation or position. D. immobilizing a patient before moving him or her. The practitioner's role at the scene of a search and rescue attempt is to: A. accompany search team members and provide care. B. reassure the family members of the missing person. C. report to a location where the patient will be carried. D. stand by at the command post until the person is located. Which of the following situations would require the use of a specialized rescue team? A. A patient trapped in a cave or a confined space B. A patient in a badly damaged car, not entrapped C. An obese patient who must be moved to the ambulance D. A patient found floating facedown in a swimming pool When responding to or functioning at a tactical situation, you should: A. leave your emergency lights on in order to identify yourself as EMS. B. remain near the side of the ambulance, even if you are told otherwise. C. depart the scene only after the incident commander has verified that it is safe. D. transport any patients from the scene using the quickest route to the hospital. In order to evaluate hazards present at the scene and determine the number of patients, you should: A. request the fire department at all scenes. B. perform a 360° walk-around of the scene. C. use the information provided by dispatch.D. interview bystanders present at the scene. _____________ is defined as the ability to reach the patient. A. Access B. Rescue C. Extrication D. Disentanglement Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, you should: A. allow extrication to commence. B. perform a primary assessment. C. administer high-flow oxygen. D. begin treating his or her injuries. Common duties and responsibilities of EMS personnel at the scene of a motor vehicle crash include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. keeping bystanders at a safe distance. B. assigning all patients a triage category. C. preparing all patients for transportation. D. continual assessment of critical patients. A unique consideration when dealing with a hybrid vehicle is that: A. you must locate the ignition switch and cut it to prevent a fire. B. cutting the battery cables often results in an explosion or fire. C. rescue teams should disconnect the positive battery cable first. D. the battery has higher amperes than a traditional vehicle battery. If a technical rescue team is required at the scene, but is not present when you arrive, you should: A. don personal protective equipment and begin the rescue process. B. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route. C. remain with your ambulance until the rescue team arrives at the scene. D. have fire personnel initiate the rescue process if they are at the scene. The normal anatomical positions is best described as: a. lying in the supine position, with the palms facing downward b. standing, facing backward, with the palms facing backward c. standing, facing forward, with the palms facing forwardd. lying in the prone position, with the palms facing upward The musculoskeletal system: a. gives the body shape b. provides for body movement c. protects vital internal organs d. all of the above Involuntary or smooth muscles are found in the: Select one: a. arms and legs b. heart c. blood vessels d. forehead Cuts produced by sharp objects that leave no jagged or torn edges are called: a. clean cut b. incisions c. lacerations d. avulsions The bones of the lower extremities include: a. acetabulum, calcaneous and metacarpals b. radius, ulna and humerus c. femur, tibia and fibula d. orbit, lumbar and shin The blood component that is essential for the formation of blood clots is called: a. plasma b. red blood cells c. platelets d. white blood cells The upper extremities include the: a. olecranon and radius bones b. phalanges and tibia c. humerus and calcaneous bones d. all of the aboveThe nervous system is subdivided into: a. central and peripheral systems b. spine and vertebral column c. bones and muscles d. brain and skin The fluid that carries blood cells and nutrients is: a. platelets b. plasma c. hemoglobin d. lymph The structure containing the voice box is the: a. pharynx b. sternum c. larynx d. trachea Injuries that involve tearing of loose or tearing off of large flaps of skin are called: a. avulsions b. tearing injuries c. ripping injuries d. lacerations As the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, the chest cavity: a. increases in size, causing inhalation b. decreases in size, causing inhalation c. increases in size, causing exhalation d. decreases in size, causing exhalation The upper jaw is also called the: a. mandible b. mastoid c. zygomatic d. maxillaAll of the following are true relative to the aorta except that the aorta: a. is the major artery originating from the heart b. is the only artery that carries deoxygenated blood c. divides at the level of the navel into the iliac arteries d. supplies all other vessels with blood A type of muscle tissue found in hollow spaces of the body is: a. voluntary b. skeletal c. involuntary d. cardiac A 52-year-old male presents with a fever of 102.5°F and a severe headache. As you assess him, you note the presence of multiple blisters on his face and chest, which are all identical in shape and size. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: A. smallpox. B. sarin toxicity. C. yellow fever virus. D. cutaneous anthrax. A disease vector is defined as: A. the spectrum of signs that define a disease. B. any agent that acts as a carrier or transporter. C. the period of time between exposure and illness. D. the ability of a virus or bacterium to be spread. A persistent or nonvolatile chemical agent can: A. evaporate quickly when left on a surface. B. remain on a surface for more than 24 hours. C. explode without warning and releases gases. D. remain in the environment for many weeks. A severe risk of terrorist attacks is indicated by the color _____ by the Department of Homeland Security Advisory System. A. red B. blue C. greenD. orange According to the Department of Homeland Security Advisory System, the color orange indicates a _______ risk of terrorist attacks. A. low B. high C. severe D. general After eating at a local restaurant, a 20-year-old male complains of blurred vision, difficulty speaking, and difficulty breathing. He is conscious; however, his respirations are profoundly labored and producing minimal tidal volume. You should: A. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. position him supine and elevate his legs. C. request a paramedic to administer atropine. D. assist his ventilations with 100% oxygen. All of the following are vesicant agents, EXCEPT: A. sarin. B. lewisite. C. sulfur mustard. D. phosgene oxime. All of the following biologic agents or diseases can be transmitted from person to person, EXCEPT: A. ricin. B. smallpox. C. pneumonic plague. D. viral hemorrhagic fever. An attack on an abortion clinic would MOST likely be carried out by a/an: A. doomsday cult. B. single-issue group. C. violent religious group. D. extremist political group. As the first arriving emergency responder at the scene of a suspected terrorist or WMD incident, you should request additional resources as needed and then:A. remain where you are until additional ambulances arrive at the scene. B. function as the incident commander until additional personnel arrive. C. direct your partner to begin triaging patients as you call medical control. D. carefully inspect the area for the presence of secondary explosive devices. As you and your partner report for duty, you check your ambulance and begin talking about the possibility of a terrorist attack. The MOST effective and appropriate way to determine the likelihood of this happening is to: A. check with local businesses to see if they have received any terrorist threats. B. ask your immediate supervisor if he or she has been watching the local news. C. know the current threat level issued by the Department of Homeland Security. D. ascertain the current situation overseas with regard to the number of casualties. At present, the likelihood of a nuclear attack against the United States is very low because: A. terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb. B. the United States has an effective early warning system to detect an incoming nuclear missile. C. other than the United States, no other countries are currently in possession of nuclear weapons. D. all nuclear devices or weapons that different countries are in possession of are currently accounted for Botulinum is: A. an acute viral infection. B. a disease of the leukocytes. C. rarely associated with death. D. a potent bacterial neurotoxin. Cross-contamination occurs when: A. an AEMT provides care to a victim after the victim has been decontaminated. B. two AEMTs are exposed to the same agent after being decontaminated. C. an AEMT has direct contact with a chemical agent at a terrorist incident. D. an AEMT is exposed to a victim who has not yet been decontaminated. Early signs and symptoms of smallpox include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. body aches. B. skin blisters. C. high fever.D. headaches. Exposure to _________ would MOST likely result in immediate respiratory distress. A. tabun B. soman C. lewisite D. chlorine If the incident command system (ICS) is already established at the scene of a WMD or terrorist attack, the PCP should: A. locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment. B. begin triaging patients and start treating the most critical ones. C. remain in the rehabilitation area until he or she is assigned a task. D. contact the EMS medical director and obtain further instructions. In determining the potential for a terrorist attack, you should routinely observe all of the following on every call, EXCEPT: A. the type of call. B. the location type. C. weather conditions. D. victim's statements. Initial signs and symptoms associated with viral hemorrhagic fevers include: A. headache and sore throat. B. acute onset of double vision. C. joint pain and unequal pupils. D. severe abdominal muscle spasms. Most cases of anthrax begin with: A. signs of shock. B. pulmonary edema. C. flulike symptoms. D. respiratory distress. Most terrorist attacks: A. are carried out by fewer than three people. B. occur within the continental United States.C. involve the use of nuclear explosive devices. D. require multiple terrorists working together. Multiple people in a small town began experiencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination, and muscle twitching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community. As you are assessing the patients, you further determine that most of them are bradycardic and have miosis. In addition to 100% oxygen, the MOST important treatment for these patients includes: A. amyl nitrate and naloxone. B. activated charcoal and glucose. C. atropine and pralidoxime chloride (2-PAM). D. epinephrine and hyperbaric oxygen. Nerve agents, a class of chemicals called organophosphates, were first discovered while in search of a superior: A. vaccine. B. antibiotic. C. pesticide. D. detergent. Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where: A. weapons of mass destruction are distributed. B. chemical and biologic weapons are stockpiled. C. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed. D. chemical weapons are manufactured and distributed. Pulmonary hemorrhage and inner ear damage are examples of __________ blast injuries. A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. miscellaneous Signs and symptoms of exposure to a nerve agent include: A. dry mouth, dilated pupils, and headache. B. salivation, pinpoint pupils, and diarrhea. C. hypertension and severe pulmonary edema. D. tachycardia, flushed skin, and unequal pupils.Symptoms of both inhaled and ingested ricin include: A. fever and headache. B. joint pain and bradycardia. C. liver necrosis and diarrhea. D. dehydration and convulsions. The chemical attacks that occurred in Tokyo between 1994 and 1995 were carried out by a/an: A. violent religious group. B. extremist political group. C. single-issue terrorist group. D. group of domestic terrorists. The LEAST harmful form of ionizing radiation is: A. beta. B. alpha. C. gamma. D. neutron. The means by which a terrorist will spread a particular agent is called: A. incubation. B. aerosolization. C. weaponization. D. dissemination. The primary clinical feature associated with exposure to phosgene oxime is: A. miosis. B. a red rash. C. bradycardia. D. skin blistering. The primary route of exposure of vesicant agents is the: A. skin. B. nervous system. C. vascular system. D. respiratory tract.The process performed to artificially maximize the target population's exposure to a biologic agent, thereby exposing the greatest number of people and achieving the desired effect, is called: A. potentiation. B. alkalinization. C. dissemination. D. weaponization. The type and severity of wounds sustained from incendiary and explosive devices primarily depend on the: A. type of material used to manufacture the device. B. pressure that is generated from the explosion itself. C. patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion. D. size of the structure that was involved in the explosion. Unlike bacterial agents, viral agents: A. are far less infectious. B. respond to antibiotics. C. are usually not treatable. D. do not replicate in the body. Unlike viruses and bacteria, neurotoxins: A. cause high fever. B. are not contagious. C. cause skin blistering. D. have a slow onset of symptoms. Viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHF), such as Ebola, cause the blood to: A. become thick and spontaneously clot. B. seep out of the blood vessels and tissues. C. attack the bone marrow and destroy cells. D. engorge the brain and cause hemorrhaging. When introduced into the body, ricin causes: A. intestinal obstruction and severe sepsis. B. enlarged lymph nodes and extreme pain. C. pulmonary edema and circulatory failure. D. necrosis of muscle tissue and cell destruction.When multiple patients present with an acute onset of difficulty breathing, chest tightness, and hoarseness or stridor, you should be MOST suspicious of exposure to: A. a nerve agent. B. sarin or soman. C. a vesicant agent. D. phosgene or chlorine. Which of the following agents blocks the body's ability to use oxygen and possesses an odor similar to almonds? A. Hydrogen cyanide B. Phosgene oxime C. Organophosphates D. Carbon monoxide Which of the following chemicals is a nerve agent? A. Phosgene B. Soman C. Lewisite D. Chlorine Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining how to protect oneself against the effects of radiation? A. Time B. Distance C. Shielding D. Body size Which of the following statements regarding a "dirty bomb" is correct? A. The effectiveness of a dirty bomb is solely dependent on the amount of alpha radiation that it emits. B. Dirty bombs could injure victims with both radioactive material and the explosive material used to deliver it. C. Dirty bombs contain significant amounts of radioactive material and are capable of being delivered via a missile. D. The dirty bomb, because of its ability to cause massive damage over a large geographic area, is an effective WMD.Which of the following statements regarding anthrax is correct? A. Anthrax is a deadly virus that replicates. B. Cutaneous anthrax has a 90% mortality rate. C. Pulmonary anthrax is the most deadly form. D. There is presently no vaccine against anthrax. Which of the following statements regarding blast injuries is correct? A. Solid organs such as the middle ear, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract are the most susceptible to pressure changes. B. Solid organs are relatively protected from shock wave injury but may be injured during the secondary or tertiary blast phase. C. Tertiary blast injuries are penetrating or nonpenetrating injuries that result from flying debris, such as ordnance projectiles. D. The gastrointestinal tract is the organ system most sensitive to blast injuries and is the leading cause of death following an explosion. Which of the following statements regarding the persistency and volatility of a chemical agent is correct? A. Sarin, a powerful nerve agent, is nonvolatile and can remain on a surface for long periods. B. Sulfur mustard, a vesicant agent, is generally considered to have a low level of persistence. C. Lewisite, a vesicant agent, is nonvolatile and evaporates quickly in an optimum temperature. D. VX, a highly persistent nerve agent, can remain in the environment for weeks to months. You and your partner arrive at the scene of a fire at a large office complex. Witnesses tell you that they heard a loud explosion shortly before the building caught fire. You should: A. carefully document the witnesses' statements and report them immediately. B. ensure that your ambulance is parked upwind and uphill from the building. C. take standard precautions and begin searching for critically injured patients. D. tell the witnesses that you suspect that the explosion was the work of a terrorist. You are assessing a 30-year-old female who presents with respiratory distress and tachycardia after she opened a package that was delivered to her home. The patient tells you that there was a fine white powder on the package, but she did not think it was important. This patient has MOST likely been exposed to: A. Ebola. B. anthrax. C. botulinum. D. a neurotoxin.You are dispatched to the scene of a building explosion. Upon arrival, you see people frantically fleeing the building, screaming, "Everyone is passing out!" You should: A. carefully assess the situation and ensure your own safety. B. assist with the evacuation and begin triaging the patients. C. notify dispatch and state that a terrorist attack has occurred. D. contact the FBI immediately and report the current situation. You are treating a patient who experienced a significant exposure to cyanide. He is semiconscious and is breathing inadequately. The MOST appropriate method of providing assisted ventilations to this patient is to: A. use a bag-mask device. B. perform mouth-to-mask ventilations. C. request a paramedic unit to intubate. D. perform mouth-to-mouth ventilations. A 68-year-old female with a history of Alzheimer's disease complains of acute abdominal pain. As you prepare to start an IV on her, she becomes verbally abusive. You should: A. attribute her aggression to the Alzheimer's disease. B. remain patient and explain the procedure to her. C. discontinue the IV attempt and transport her. D. gently restrain her and continue with the IV. You are calling the hospital with information about a patient. Which of the following items would you state first: a. the pulse is 120 b. the patients denies difficulty breathing c. 73 year old female d. history of diabetes Orders given to the PCP by telephone or radio are called: Select one: a. protocols b. off-line medical direction c. on-line medical direction d. standing orders Which of the following statements regarding patient refusals is correct?A. A court of law must approve all patient refusals for care. B. You cannot legally mandate that a patient sign a refusal form. C. Only a law enforcement officer can witness a signed refusal. D. At least three witnesses are needed when a patient refuses care. You are treating a 23 year old man who is deaf. You need to find out why he called for an ambulance. What is the best way to communicate with this man: a. speak very loudly just in case he can hear something b. make sure the patient can see your mouth in case he can lip read c. find someone else to ask questions so you don't need to talk to him d. call for an interpreter to meet you at the hospital Which of the following functions would an emergency medical dispatcher (EMD) perform? A. Encouraging a caller to proceed to the hospital B. Providing medical direction to the practitioner C. Translating for a non-English speaking caller D. Instructing a caller how to perform CPR You are caring for a 32-year-old female who does not speak English. The patient is clinically stable and there are no family members present at the scene. What is the most effective way to communicate with her? A. Ask short questions and use simple words. B. Request the police to act as an interpreter. C. Use hand gestures when asking questions. D. Remain silent and simply transport her. When an emergency dispatcher questions a patient or caller which of the following is not routinely asked: a. what is the exact location of the patient? b. how old is the patient? c. what's the problem? d. has the patient been in the hospital recently? You are administering aspirin to a patient with crushing chest pain when he asks you if he is having a heart attack. An appropriate response to his question would be: A. "I don't know." B. "I believe you are." C. "An ECG will tell us."D. "Probably not." When you talk with a patient, you should try to position yourself: Select one: a. at the patient's feet b. at the patient's head c. standing above the patient d. at a level lower than the patient's Which of the following represents the MOST appropriate order to present patient information over the radio when communicating with the hospital? A. Age and sex, chief complaint, care provided, history of present illness, exam findings, estimated time of arrival B. Chief complaint, history of present illness, age and sex, exam findings, care provided, estimated time of arrival C. Age and sex, chief complaint, history of present illness, exam findings, care provided, estimated time of arrival D. Chief complaint, age and sex, exam findings, history of present illness, care provided, estimated time of arrival After you receive patient care orders from medical control, you should: a. consult with the patient b. terminate the transmission c. repeat the orders back word for word d. repeat the orders back in your own words Providing information to the receiving facility allows the hospital to: a. change staff b. notify the press c. notify the police d. prepare for the patient Hand-held, two-way radios are also called: a. portable radios b. mobile radios c. base radios d. cellular radiosDuring your assessment of a patient, you ask, "Can you tell me more about your problem? I am listening." Which communication tool is this an example of? A. Confrontation. B. Reflection. C. Facilitation. D. Clarification. Once you have arrived with a patient at the receiving facility, you should notify the: a. police b. family c. dispatcher d. hospital staff Which of the following types of patient information is NOT usually part of your verbal report when you communicate with medical control: a. name b. allergies c. past history d. chief complaint When you relay patient information via a radio, communications should be: a. brief and organized b. coded and scripted c. spoken in a loud voice d. lengthy and complete While en route back to your station after delivering a patient to the hospital, you realize that you made an error on the front page of the patient care report. You should: A. draw a straight line through it with different colored ink and date and initial it. B. mark through the error with a black marker to ensure it is completely covered. C. place an "X" across the error and write an addendum to include the correction. D. completely mark through the error and write the correct information beside it. You are caring for a patient with a possible myocardial infarction. When communicating with medical control, you are able to speak to the physician and send an ECG tracing at the same time. What type of radio system is required to do this? A. Trunking systemB. Uniplex system C. Full duplex mode D. Simplex system You are treating a 23 year old woman who has a painful swollen deformity on her lower left leg. She is very nervous about what you are going to do. She asks you if the procedure will hurt. What should you tell her before you splint the leg: a. not to worry, everything will be fine b. yes, it may hurt some c. no, this shouldn't hurt at all d. yes, it might but it's not big deal You are dispatched to a residence for a 5-year-old child with fever. During your assessment, the child becomes irritable and starts crying. You should: A. limit your assessment to a visual inspection of the child. B. encourage a parent or caregiver to hold the child. C. carefully restrain the child and continue your assessment. D. ask the parent or caregiver to leave the room. Once at the scene, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and the: a. condition of the patient b. estimate time of arrival c. number of miles travelled d. need for special equipment The responsibilities of the emergency dispatcher include all the following EXCEPT: a. dispatching and coordinating EMS resources b. providing medical direction to the responding unit c. interrogating the caller and prioritizing the call d. coordinating with other public safety agencies Ethnocentrism is defined as: A. considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture. B. embracing the cultural values and beliefs of another person, even if they go against what you were taught. C. intentionally providing substandard medical care to a person whose cultural values are different from yours.D. consciously forcing your cultural values onto another person because you believe your values are better. Which of the following situations requires reporting to the authorities? A. Inadvertent overdose by an elderly patient B. An adult who was bitten by a stray dog C. A minor who was injured during a school event D. Any EMS call involving more than two patients For legal reasons, you should NOT use language on the radio that is considered: a. slang b. coded c. profane d. uncommon terminology Which of the following types of patient information should be relayed first after you identify your unit and name: a. age and sex b. present illness c. chief complaint d. primary problem Two-way radios that are at a fixed site such as a hospital are called: a. mobile radios b. base stations c. repeaters d. cellular radios You are giving your oral report to the attending physician in the emergency department. Which of the following information about the patient is usually NOT given at this point? A. Initial vital sign values B. The patient's physical address C. The patient's name and age D. Any important medical history Which of the following is an effective method for improving how you communicate with your patient:a. stand above the patient b. use eye contact c. use medical terms d. all of the above When you transmit information to the receiving facility, you should: a. use the standard format b. speak in coded language c. offer a diagnosis of the patient d. include the name of the patient Pertinent information that is transmitted over the radio to the receiving hospital includes all of the following, EXCEPT the: A. age and sex of the patient. B. name and address of the patient. C. patient's response to treatment. D. patient's primary complaint. How does an enhanced 9-1-1 system function? A. It displays the caller's information on the dispatcher's computer. B. It is a universal number that can be accessed from any phone. C. It prevents the dispatcher and the caller from being disconnected. D. It provides the caller with initial emergency care for the patient. Components of a verbal report include the treatment given en route, the chief complaint, and the vital signs taken en route. Which of the following is another essential component of your verbal report: a. the patient's diagnosis b. the patient's approximate height and weight c. history that was not given previously d. the patient's social insurance number Your assessment of a 40-year-old male with an altered mental status (AMS) reveals the obvious odor of alcohol on his breath. When documenting the events of the call, you should state that: A. the patient appeared to be acutely intoxicated. B. the smell of alcohol was noted on the patient's breath. C. alcohol cannot be ruled out as the cause of his AMS. D. the patient's blood alcohol concentration is high.Which of the following information is generally NOT reported to the dispatcher during a call? A. Acknowledgement of the situation B. The patient's clinical condition C. Your departure for the hospital D. Your arrival at the hospital Which of the following words should you use to terminate a transmission: a. off b. end c. clear d. finished Which of the following statements regarding hearing-impaired patients is correct? A. Hearing-impaired patients are commonly unaware of their surroundings. B. Patients who are hearing-impaired are usually ashamed of their handicap. C. Elevating your voice when speaking to the patient will facilitate hearing. D. Family members of hearing-impaired patients often have difficulty coping. To describe your patient's illness or injury, you should: a. have the dispatcher look up the medical terminology for you b. make up something that sounds good c. use complex codes d. use plain English You must be careful when speaking to the family members about a patient because: A. the patient may misinterpret what you said. B. they are not a reliable source of information. C. it is a violation of the patient's rights. D. the family may sue you for slander. The transfer of patient care officially occurs when you: A. give an oral report to a nurse or physician. B. complete all documentation regarding the call. C. advise the hospital of the situation via radio. D. arrive at the receiving hospital or facility.You may receive an order from the on-line physician to help a patient with his/her medication. You should then: a. explain to the patient what you are going to do b. repeat the order back to the physician word for word c. repeat