Republic AQP Knowledge Validation Study Guide E170/175 (Rev4), E170 systems study guide

Republic AQP Knowledge Validation Study Guide E170/175 (Rev4), E170 systems study guide Republic AQP Knowledge Validation Study Guide E170/175 (Rev4), E170 systems study guide TYPES OF OPERATIONS -Day or Night in following conditions 1. Visual Flight (VFR) 2. Instrument Flight (IFR) 3. Icing Conditions 4. CAT I 5. CAT II 6. RVSM 7. Extended Overwater Operation (EOW) *175 only when properly equipped Maximum Ramp Weight (MRW) E-170 82,364 lbs Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTW) E-170 82,011 lbs Maximum Landing Weight (MLW) E-170 72,310 lbs Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW) E-170 65,256 lbs 66,446 lbs (refer to release for applicable MZFW) Maximum Ramp Weight (MRW) E-175 85,870 lbs Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTW) E-175 85,517 lbs Maximum Landing Weight (MLW) E-175 74,957 lbs Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW) E-175 69,886 lbs Max Cargo Compartment Loads (E-170) FWD - 3020 AFT - 2271 Max Cargo Compartment Loads (E-175) FWD - 3307 AFT - 2535 Minimum flight crew Pilot & Copilot Max T/O and Landing tailwind component * 10 kts Max Runway Slope +/- 2.0% Runway Surface Type Paved Flaps Up Maneuvering G Load (-1.0) to (+2.5) G Flaps Down Maneuvering G Load (o.o) to (+2.0) G Max operating altitude * 41,000' Max T/O and Landing altitude 8,000' Max ambient temp T/O and Landing 52º C Max flap extension altitude * 20,000' Max flight operating latitude 78ºN to 78ºS Min ambient temp for T/O -40ºC Maximum crosswind for T/O & Landing: Dry Runway 38 knots Maximum crosswind for T/O & Landing: Wet Runway 31 knots Maximum crosswind for T/O & Landing: Compacted Snow 20 knots Maximum crosswind for T/O & Landing: Standing Water/ Slush 18 knots Maximum crosswind for T/O & Landing: Wet Ice (no melting) 12 knots Turbulent Airspeed: - below 10,000 feet * - above 10,000 feet * below 10,000 feet: 250 KIAS above 10,000 feet: 270 KIAS/0.76 M (whichever is lower) Max gear extension, retraction, and extended speeds * Extension (Vlo) 250 KIAS Retraction (Vlo) 250 KIAS Extended (Vle) 250 KIAS Max tire groundspeed * 195 knots Max flap operating speeds: (KIAS) * 1 2 3 4 5 Full 1- 230 2- 215 3- 200 4- 180 5- 180 Full- 165 *Every effort will be made to extend the flaps approaching Green Dot to Green Dot + 10, but in no case below Green Dot, to optimize flap life and fuel consumption.* Max speed to open the direct vision window * 160 KIAS Max operating speeds SL to 8,000' - 300 KIAS 8,000' to 10,000' - 300 to 320 KIAS 10,000' to FL290 - 320 KIAS FL290 to FL410 - .82 M Designed maneuvering speed 240 KIAS (C) Define icing conditions *Icing conditions exist when the SAT on the ground or for T/O, or TAT inflight, is: 1) 10ºC or below; and 2) Visible moisture in present in any form (such as clouds, fog with visibility of 1 mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, and ice crystals.) ; or 3) When operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush may be ingested by the engines, or freeze on engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes.* Engine and Wing Anti-Ice System operations * *On the Ground: During taxi out and takeoff, "MCDU DATA SET MENU" must be set to "ALL" when SAT is 10ºC or below and icing conditions exist or are anticipated. (C) * In Flight: The engine and wing anti-ice systems operate automatically when the ICE PROTECTION Mode Selector is in "AUTO". If either one or both ice detectors are failed, the crew must set the mode selector to "ON" when icing conditions exist or are anticipated at or below 10ºC TAT with visible moisture. Max windshield wiper operating speed * 250 KIAS Maximum usable fuel quantity per tank 10,393 lbs / 1536 gal Unusable fuel quantity per tank 75 lbs / 11 gal Aircraft maximum fuel capacity 20,936 lbs / 3094 gal What is the fuel density ? 6.767 lbs/gal What are the approved fuels? Primary: Jet A , Jet A1 Alternate: JP-8 Brazilian specification: QAV1 Minimum fuel tank temp * -40ºC Max fuel imbalance * 790 lbs (C) Crossfeed limitation * The "XFEED" selector must be set to "OFF" during takeoff and landing. Max differential pressure (pneumatics) up to 37,000' - 7.8 psi above 37,000' - 8.3 psi Max differential overpressure (pneumatics) 8.7 psi Max differential negative pressure (pneumatics) - 0.5 psi Max differential pressure T/O and Landing (pneumatics) 0.2 psi Max altitude for single pack operations (pneumatics) * 31,000' Brake limitation Do not takeoff with amber brake temperature indicators Landing gear retraction limitation (downlock release button) Activation of the landing gear downlock release button is prohibited for all takeoffs unless obstacle clearance is required. (C) Flap Limitations * *1. Maximum altitude with flaps extended - 20,000' 2. Enroute use of flaps is prohibited (C) 3. Do not hold in icing conditions with flaps extended (C) 4. The use of Flaps 4 during approach and landing is prohibited (C)* Limitations on Thrust Reversers 1. Approved for ground use only 2. Intended for use during rejected takeoffs and full stop landings 3. Do not attempt go-around after deployment of the thrust reversers 4. Power back operations using thrust reversers are prohibited 5. Must be stowed below 60 KIAS 6. After selecting reverse thrust, do not move the thrust levers into forward thrust range until the REV icon on the EICAS is shown in amber or green. TAS, TAT, & SAT valid above 60 KIAS Standby magnetic compass is not valid... While transmitting on VHF #1 All CAT I approaches Must use BARO altimeter minimums LOC backcourse approaches not authorized On IESS The Captain must ensure displayed guidance data from non-usable stations... Is not used for navigation purposes by the flight crew Enhanced Ground Ground Proximity Warning (EGPWS) limitations 1.) Aircraft navigation must not be predicated upon the use of the Terrain Awareness Display 2.) The use of predictive EGPWS functions should be manually inhibited when landing at an airport that is not in the airport database to avoid unwanted alerts. 3.) Pilots are authorized to deviate from their current ATC clearance to the extent necessary to comply with EGPWS Warning. 4.) The Terrain Display is intended to be used as a situational only and may not provide the accuracy and/or fidelity on which to solely base terrain avoidance maneuvering. 5.) The use of predictive EGPWS functions should be manually inhibited during QFE operations if GPS data is unavailable or inoperative. TCAS Alert and Collision Avoidance (TCAS) limitations A.) Pilots are authorized to deviate from their current ATC clearance to the extent necessary to comply with the RA RVSM Minimum Equipment Required - 2 RVSM compliant Air Data Systems - 1 Autopilot, ENGAGED, w/ Altitude Hold Mode operative (C) - 1 Altitude Alerter - 1 Transponder Note: - ADS1 , ADS2, ADS3 are RVSM compliant. - IESS must not be used for RVSM operation - Should any of the required equipment fail prior to entering RVSM airspace, the pilot should request a new clearance to avoid entering this airspace. - ADS3 is not considered RVSM compliant w/ "ADS3 SLIPCOMP FAIL" message displayed on the EICASS Maximum altimeter differences -2000 up to 10,000 50' 10,000 up to 20,000 120' 20,000 up to 41,000 180' Maximum latitude for IRS stationary alignment - 78.25º northern and southern - IRS stationary alignment will complete only after a valid aircraft position (lat and long) is received either from the FMS (pilot entry) or automatically from the GPS How long does it take for stationary alignment of IRS 5 - 17 min depending on latitude FMS speed limitations * FMS speeds may only be used during normal flight operations Autopilot Min engagement height on T/O 400' Autopilot Min use height for coupled ILS approach 50' Autopilot Min use height for Non-Precision approach MDA (DA) The maximum demonstrated altitude loss due to autopilot malfunction 20' Autopilot Minimum use Height (MUH) 50' note: Coupled go-around height loss may be 50' Minimum equipment required for CAT II approach - 2 Internal Reference Systems (IRS) - 2 Flight Director Systems - 2 Primary Flight Displays (PFD) - Windshield Wipers - 2 VOR/ILS NAV systems - 1 VHF/COMM System - CAT II Engagement Logic - 1 Radar Altimeter - 1 Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System (EGPWS) - 2 Air Data Systems (ADS) - Rudder in normal mode - SPOILER FAULT message not presented - 1 Autopilot System with 1 Operating Channel - Autothrottles Manually flown CAT II approaches Are Prohibited; The autopilot and auto-throttles must be operational and engaged Are single engine CAT II approaches approved ? Republic Airlines is not approved for single engine CAT II approaches. This does not prohibit the Captain from exercising their emergency authority to conduct CAT II single engine approach if this is the safest course of action. CAT II approach and landing flaps must be... Flaps 5 CAT II maximum crosswind component 12 knots Engine - Max N1 99.5% Engine - Max N2 99.4 % Engine - Minimum N2 58.5 % Engine - Max ITT for start 815º C Engine - Max ITT Normal T/O and Go Around 965ºC (limited to first 2 min of 5) 949ºC (limited to the remaining 3 min of 5) Engine - Max ITT Maximum T/O and Go around 1006ºC (limited to first 2 min of 5) 990ºC (limited to the remaining 3 min of 5) Engine - Max ITT (continuous) 960ºC Engine - oil pressure range min - 25 psi max - 95 psi Engine - Oil Temperature (Max Continuous) 155ºC Engine - Oil Temperature (Max Transient) 163ºC (limited to 15 min transient operations above 155ºC) Engine Warm Up/ Cool Down limitations * *A.) Before applying takeoff thrust, allow the engines to warm up for a minimum of 2 minutes B.) A 2 minute cool down must be observed prior to shutting down an engine* EICAS Markings * Red Amber Green *Red - Max and Min Limitations Amber - Caution Range Green - Normal Operating Range* When is FLEX prohibited * Use of reduced takeoff thrust procedure is not allowed on runways contaminated with standing water, slush, snow, or ice and are not allowed on wet runways unless suitable performance accountability is made for increased stopping distance on the wet runway surface * When LLWAS is reported on ATIS When windshearis reported When aircraft performance requires NO FLEX Max thrust reduction with FLEX 25% -The total thrust reduction must not exceed 25% of the full takeoff thrust Engine Thrust Limitations A.) Operation at reduced takeoff thrust based on assumed temperature higher than the actual ambient temperature is permissible if the aircraft meets all applicable performance requirement at the planned takeoff weight and reduced thrust setting B.) The total thrust reduction must not exceed 25% of the full takeoff thrust C.) Use of reduced takeoff thrust procedure is not allowed on runways contaminated with standing water, slush, snow, or ice and are not allowed on wet runways unless suitable performance accountability is made for the increased stopping distance on the wet runway surface. note: the use of "WET" runway analysis numbers takes into account the increased stopping distance which occurs on wet runways D.) When using reduced takeoff thrust (FLEX) on wet runways, the runway analysis (takeoff performance) must be based on "WET" runway conditions. E.) Takeoff with Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System (ATTCS) OFF is not authorized. Engine Starter Duty Cycle (Ground) 1st & 2nd start- 90 sec ON/ 10 sec OFF 3rd to 5th start- 90 sec ON/ 5 min OFF Engine Starter Duty Cycle (In Flight) 1st & 2nd start- 120 sec ON/ 10 sec OFF 3rd to 5th start- 120 sec ON/ 5 min off Engine Starter Dry Motoring 1st - 90 sec ON/ 5 min off 2nd to 5th - 30 sec ON/ 5 min OFF after 5 times motoring- 15 min OFF Single engine taxi is not authorized when: * *- Ice accretion in the form of freezing rain, freezing drizzle, freezing fog, or heavy snow is anticipated - Breaking action is less than "Good" - Reported RVR less than 1200 - Power out is required (no pushback)* What type of APU is installed Sundstrand APS 2300 APU - Minimum starting temperature -54ºC APU - Max starting temperature ISA + 35ºC APU - Min operating temprature -62ºC APU - Max operating temp ISA + 35ºC APU - Max altitudes: * Start Electric only Electric & Pneumatics Assist engine start *Start - 30,000' Electric only - 33,000' Bleed - 15,000' Assist engine start - 21,000'* APU - Max rotor speed 108 % APU - Max ITT Start 1032ºC APU - Max ITT Continuous 717ºC APU starter duty cycle 1st & 2nd start: 60 sec ON/ 60 sec OFF 3rd start: 60 sec ON/ 5 min OFF What is the primary and secondary method for determining Ozone Concentration and avoidance ? Primary method: accomplished by Dispatch using WSI Forecasting Tool Secondary method: In the event the WSI Forecasting Tool is unavailable, dispatch release will indicate secondary method has been accomplished using Ozone Concentration Tables Note: If the flight plan is created to avoid areas of forecast Ozone concentration exceeding regulatory limits, a remark will be placed on the dispatch release Max operating airspeed VMO Max operating mach number .82 (Mmo) Max airspeed for RAT operation Vmo/Mmo Aircraft Dimensions: E170 Height Wing span Length Height - 32' 3" Wing span - 85' 4" Length - 98' 1" Aircraft Dimensions: E175 Height Wing span Length Height - 32' 4" Wing span - 85' 4" or 93' 11" w/ extended winglet Length - 103' 11" Minimum turning radius 170 - 54'3" (tip of elevator) 175 - 57'3" ( tip of elevator) 175 w/extended winglets - 57'9" (wing tip) What are the 16 checklist procedures on the QRC (page1) - ENGINE FIRE, SEVERE DAMAGE, OR SEPARATION - DUAL ENGINE FAILURE - EMERGENCY EVACUATION - CABIN ALTITUDE HI - EMERGENCY DESCENT - ENGINE ABNORMAL START (page 2) - CRG FWD (AFT) SMOKE - APU FIRE - BATT 1 (2) OVERTEMP - PITCH TRIM RUNAWAY - ROLL (YAW) TRIM RUNAWAY - STEERING RUNAWAY - SMOKE / FIRE/ FUMES - SMOKE EVACUATION - JAMMED CONTROL COLUMN - PITCH - JAMMED CONTROL WHEEL - ROLL [QRC] CABIN ALTITUDE HI 1. OXYGEN MASKS..........VERIFY......ON, 100% 2. CREW COMMUNICATION............ESTABLISH [QRC] ENGINE ABNORMAL START #___START/STOP.......................................STOP [QRC] PITCH TRIM RUNAWAY AP/TRIM DISC BUTTON............PRESS & HOLD [QRC] ROLL (YAW) TRIM RUNAWAY AP/TRIM DISC BUTTON.............PRESS & HOLD [QRC] STEERING RUNAWAY STEER DISC SWITCH..............................PRESS [QRC] SMOKE/ FIRE/ FUMES 1. OXYGEN MASKS...........VERIFY.........ON,100% 2. CREW COMMUNICATION................ESTABLISH [QRC] SMOKE EVACUATION 1. OXYGEN MASKS...........VERIFY.........ON, 100% 2. CREW COMMUNICATION................ESTABLSIH [QRC] JMMED CONTROL COLUMN - PITCH 1 ELEVATOR DISCONNECT HANDLE............PULL [QRC] JAMMED CONTROL WHEEL - ROLL 1. AILERON DISCONNECT HANDLE..............PULL Maintenanence Status... What are you checking for? Verify all MX items are appropriate & All MEL/CDL's cleared All circuit breakers are "In" or "Collared" Check for valid "Air Worthiness" & "2-Day" check Verify all safety items are on board What would you do if you saw maintenance was on board? Don't touch any aircraft controls and consult mechanic What happens when the GPU pushbutton is out? Isolates the AC GPU from the AC BUS TIE What happens when the APU pushbutton is in? Connects the APU generator to the AC BUS TIE provided the power is within limits. Allows automatic operation of the electrical system. What happens when the battery switches are off? Batteries 1 & 2 supply power to their respective HOT BATT BUSES Name a few items on the HOTT BATT BUSES Hot Bus 1: 1. Engine 1A/2A Fire Extinguishers 2. Engine 1 Fuel Shutoff Valve 3. Engine 1 Hydraulic Shutoff Valve 4. Engine 1 Oil Level Indications 5. Courtesy Lights/ Service Lights 6. DC Ceiling Lights Hot Bus 2: 1. Engine 1B/2B Fire Extinguishers 2. Engine 2 Fuel Shutoff Valve 3. Engine 2 Hydraulic Shutoff Valve 4. Engine 2 Oil Level Indications 5. CMC 6. Refueling Panel 7. Water & Waste System How do you know the battery voltage is good? The battery icon is always displayed on the electrical synoptic page of the MFD along with voltage and temp. The battery is green above 18V and white below 18 volts. The battery limits for starting: 22.5 VDC and -20ºC What happens when the Fuel DC Pump & AC Pumps 1 & 2 are in "AUTO" ? Automatically operates the pumps according to system logic. What happens when HYD SYS 1,2, &3B electric pumps are in "AUTO" ? Allows the electric pumps to operate automatically according to system logic What is the minimum Battery voltage 22.5 VDC What if the batteries are below 22.5 VDC? The GPU can power the airplane & recharge the batteries. Chart in Chapter 6 should be referenced to determine how long is necessary to recharge the batteries. *Below 21 VDC - call MX / do not depart What does the "AVAIL" light on the GPU pushbutton indicate? The AC GPU is connected and the voltage/amperage/frequency are within limits. How is the APU monitored and controlled? APU FADEC What happens when you rotate the APU master switch to "ON" ? Powers the APU FADEC and opens the APU fuel shutoff valve What happens when you rotate the APU master switch to "OFF" ? Initiates the normal shutdown sequence. A 1 min cooldown period begins. The APU pnuematics is removed immediately. The electrical power is removed after the 1 min cooldown period. What happens when the "APU EMERGENCY STOP" button is pushed? The APU fuel shutoff valve closes And the APU will shut down without the 1 min cooldown period What emergency Equipment do you check for in the Flight Deck ? (1) PBE (1) Halon Fire Extinguisher (1) Crash Axe (2) Flash Lights (2) Escape Ropes (3) Life Vests MCDU.......SET. What are you checking? Verify NAV Database is current Initialize the FMS position on both FMS's Check all electronic circuit breakers are in or MEL'd Initialize ACARS - confirm correct date and flight # Send "FIT FOR DUTY" and Accept Release Enter and confirm flight plan PERF INIT...Set -Enter Climb/Cruise/Descent speed according to flight plan -Enter Reserve/Taxi/Hold fuel -Initial Altitude/ ISA Dev/ Cruise Winds/ Cruise Wind Alt DEP/APP speeds - Departure speed limit 210 until 3000' an 6.0 NM Correct transponder code is entered What are you checking when you press the DVDR test button? Honeywell: Verify no fail message (FDR [FWD or AFT] FAIL) displayed on EICAS. Universal: In addition to no FAIL messages -FDR1 PASS/FAIL light flashes for 10 sec then steady green, then -FDR2 PASS/FAIL light flashes for 10 sec then steady green. When does the DVDR (Digital Voice Data Recorder) normally begin recording? Audio (2 hr of recording)- starts at power up, ends at power down Flight data (25 h of recording) - starts at first engine start, ends at engine shutdown *Universal unit continues to record audio for 10 min after power-down and pass/fail lights illuminate amber What happens when the IDG selector knob is set to: - AUTO - OFF - DISC AUTO - closes the IDG contactor which connects the IDG to the respective AC BUS, and allows the automatic operation of the electrical system OFF- opens the IDG contactor isolating the IDG from the respective AC BUS. DISC - must be held in the position for 1 sec to mechanically disconnect the IDG. Can the IDG generator be reconnected in flight? NO, must be done by mechanic on the ground What indication would you get with an IDG low oil pressure or high oil temperature? An amber LED next to the associated IDG switch and an associated EICAS IDG 1(2) oil illumnates. What happens when the AC BUS TIE switch is in AUTO or 1(2) OPEN? AUTO - allows automatic operation of the electrical system. 1(2) OPEN - isolates the respective AC BUS. What happens when the TRU 1(2), and TRU ESS switches are in AUTO? AUTO allows automatic operation of the electrical system What happens with the BATT 1 switch is "ON" or "OFF" ? ON - The battery 1 contactor is closed and the battery is connected to the DC ESS BUS 1. OFF - The battery contactor is open and the battery only supplies power to HOT BATT BUS 1 What happens when the DC BUS TIES switch is in "AUTO" or "OFF" ? AUTO - allows automatic operation of the electrical system. OFF - opens all BUS TIE contactors What happens when the BATT 2 switch is in "AUTO" or "OFF" ? AUTO - allows automatic operation of the electrical system. OFF - the battery supplies power to HOTT BATT BUS 2 Why is there an "AUTO" position on BATT 2 ? BATT 2 supplies power to the APU START BUS during APU starting. Is BATT 1 necessary to start the APU? YES, BATT 1 powers the APU FADEC and EICAS for monitoring What is an ICC? Integrated Control Center - An electrical-electronic device, providing power distribution and protection for airplane electrical loads, SPDA's, and the circuit breakers located on the cockpit sidewalls They incorporate thermal CB's, LRU's, LRM's, and AC/DC busses How many ICC's are there? Where are they located? 4 ICC's EICC (Emergency) - FWD ebay LICC (Left) & RICC (Right) - MID ebay AICC (Auxiliary) - AFT ebay What buses are located inside the ICC's ? LICC - MID ebay - AC BUS 1 - AC GRND SVC BUS - DC GRND SVC BUS - DC BUS 1 RICC - MID ebay - AC BUS 2 - DC BUS 2 - DC ESS BUS 2 EICC - FWD ebay - AC ESS BUS - AC STBY BUS - DC ESS BUS 1 - DC ESS BUS 3 - HOT BATT BUS 1 AICC - AFT ebay - HOT BATT BUS 2 - APU START BUS What is an SPDA ? Secondary Power Distribution Assemblies - An electrical load management unit that receives power from the ICC AC/DC electrical buses and distributes it to the airplanes systems, according to system distribution logic. Incorporate electronic CB's (controllable via MCDU), and LRM How many SPDA's are there ? Where are they located ? 2 SPDA's SPDA 1 - FWD ebay SPDA 2 - MID ebay What DC BUSES power each SPDA, providing redundancy and ensuring system segregation ? SPDA 1 - DC BUS 1 - DC ESS BUS 1 - DC ESS BUS 2 - DC GND SVC BUS SPDA 2 - DC BUS 2 - DC ESS BUS 1 - DC ESS BUS 2 - DC GND SVC BUS The SPDA's Electronic CB's provide protection for load distribution to which systems? - AMS - Elctrical - Hydraulic - Anti-ice - Lighting - Oxygen - Engine ignition and starting - Water - APU - Fire Protection What is an MAU ? Modular Avionics Unit A cabinet that houses modules assigned to different functions in an integrated architecture and also avionics and non avionics functions. How many MAU's are there ? Where are they located ? 3 MAU's MAU 1 & 2 - FWD ebay MAU 3 - MID ebay What DC buses provide power to the MAU's MAU 1 - DC 1 - DC ESS 1 MAU 2 - DC 2 - DC ESS 2 MAU 3 - DC 2 - DC ESS 2 What type of Circuit Breakers are on the airplane? Where are they located? Which can be reset by the crew? CB's are either "Thermal" or "Electronic" Thermal CB's : - Some Thermal CB's are located on the cockpit sidewalls (accessible to the crew) - The others are located in the ICC's in the ebay's. (can only be reset by maintenance on the ground) Electronic CB's : The Electronic Remote CB's are located in the SPDA's and can be reset by the crew via the MCDU note: all CB's in the ebay's are considered remote CB's How are the CB panels on the cockpit sidewall numbered? CA panel = 1-20 FO panel = 21-40 What are you checking when you press the ANNUNCIATOR TEST button? The lamp integrity of all striped bars and caption indication of all main panel, overhead panel, and control pedestal. Note: Does not test Parking Brake, GPU, Fire Lights What is the maximum permissible fuel imbalance between the left and right main tanks? 790 lbs [Fuel Imbalance] EICAS message displayed at 800 lbs remains on until imbalance drops below 100 lbs above How would you correct fuel imbalance? Position the "XFEED" selector knob to the tank to the low side, "LOW 1 (2)" as required. What happens when the "XFEED" selector knob is positioned to LOW 1" ? It opens the crossfeed valve and automatically activates the right AC fuel pump(AC PUMP 2), supplying fuel from the right wing tank to both engines. What is the purpose of the DC FUEL Pump ? It provides pressurized fuel for normal APU operation and engine start, when AC power or AC fuel pump is not available. What happens when the AC PUMP 1(2) selector knob is in auto? Automatically operates the associated AC fuel pump according to system logic. What is the purpose of the AC fuel pump? It is a backup pump, supplying fuel to the engines in the event of an ejector pump failure or during engine start. When do the Emergency lights automatically come on? If the DC buses lose electrical power How long will the batteries supply emergency power to the ELPU's ? approx 10 minutes What indications are you looking for when you press & hold the Fire Detection TEST button ? [6 - LIGHTS ON OVERHEAD PANEL] - #1 Engine Fire Extinguishing handle - #2 Engine Fire Extinguishing handle - FIRE EXTINGUISHER CARGO SMOKE FWD pushbutton - FIRE EXTINGUISHER CARGO SMOKE AFT pushbutton - FIRE EXTINGUISHER APU pushbutton - APU CONTROL EMER STOP pushbutton (upper half) [5 - EICAS messages] - ENG 1 FIRE - ENG 2 FIRE - APU FIRE - CARGO FWD SMOKE - CARGO AFT SMOKE [4 - Lights on Instrument Panel/ Glareshield] - Left and right FIRE warning icon on ITT EICAS indicators - 2 Master Warning Lights (red) [2- Aural Warnings) - Continuous (FIRE) bell - Triple chime What happens when you push the SYS 1 and SYS 2 ENGINE PUMP SHUTOFF guarded buttons? Closes the hydraulic SOV, isolating the respective engine driven pump (EDP) What is the purpose of the PTU? The PTU uses system 1 hydraulic pressure and system 2 hydraulic fluid to provide additional power to retract the landing gear incase of an engine 2 or EDP2 failure. When will the PTU operate automatically? with the PTU control knob in "AUTO" - during T/O or landing if the #2 engine driven hydraulic pump or #2 engine fails; (and all the following) - Flaps other than "0" OR landing gear is not up and locked. - EDP 1 is not failed - Hyraulic system 2 reservoir quantity is above 12 % What is the purpose of ELEC PUMP A & ELEC PUMP B ? ELEC PUMP A (B) is used as a backup for the respective Engine Driven Pump (EDP). What causes SYS 2 ELEC PUMP to operate during single engine taxi? If Engine 1 is started, releasing the parking brake will automatically activate SYS 2 ELEC pump to allow for hydraulic pressure for nose wheel steering. It will turn off 6 minutes after parking break is applied. What is the primary hydraulic source for hydraulic system 3? SYS 3 ELEC PUMP A What is the purpose of SYS 3 ELEC PUMP B, and what happens when the selector knob is in auto? Back up to SYS 3 ELEC PUMP A. IN "AUTO", ELEC PUMP B will come on if ELEC PUMP A fails. How would you be alerted to a hydraulic low quantity or over temperature ? On EICAS display and confirmed on the hydraulic synoptic page on the MFD. How would you know if an Engine Driven Hydraulic Pump or ELEC PUMP was overheating? [HYD 1(2)(3) HI TEMP] EICAS message is displayed when the fluid temp reaches 100 ºC At 125 ºC the hydraulic SOV will automatically close, isolating the respective pump from the hydraulic flow line [HYD 1(2)(3) OVERHEAT] EICAS message is displayed when fluid temp is above 145 ºC. In this case the SOV can be manually commanded close with shutoff button. What systems use HYD SYS 1 ? - Spoiler panels 2,3,4 both sides - Left outboard elevator - Upper rudder - Outboard brakes - Thrust reverser 1 - Emergency/Parking brake What systems use HYD SYS 2 ? - Spoiler panels 1 & 5 both sides - Left and right inboard elevators - Left and right inboard ailerons - Landing gear - Nose wheel steering - Inboard brakes - Thrust reverser 2 - Emergency/Parking brake What systems use HYD SYS 3 ? - Right outboard elevator - Lower rudder - Left and right outboard Ailerons Why do we put the CABIN ALT selector knob in the "STOP" position ? Normal operating position, allows automatic operation of the system. What are the "DOWN/ UP" positions used for on the CABIN ALT selector knob? Manually closes/ opens the outflow valve to decrease/ increase cabin altitude. What must you do to manually control the cabin altitude? the pressurization MODE selector knob must be in "MAN". When in Manual mode, both CPCS controllers revert to standby, but only one channel performs the manual operation. The channel selection in automatic. The pilot is responsible for opening and closing the outflow valve to maintain desired cabin altitude . (reference QRH for schedule) There is no automatic cabin depressurization on the ground. What is the LFE CTRL selector position on the pressurization MODE selector knob used for? Allows manual input of the landing field elevation Is the pressurization system still in AUTO mode when the LFE is entered manually? YES How would you manually control the LFE? With the LFE selector knob by selecting the DOWN/UP position it Decreases/Increases the LFE in 100ft increments What heappens when you push the "DUMP" pushbutton ? In AUTO MODE - provides rapid decompression of the cabin at 2000 ft/min up to 12,400 feet. Shuts off the recirculation fans and the packs What does the cyan "M" indicate in the EICAS ? A cyan "M" in front of the altitude readout indicates manual imput of the Landing Field Elevation How can you determine the position of the outflow valve? There is an outflow valve position indicator on the ECS (Environmental Control System) page on the MFD What happens to the WINDSHIELD HEAT when you have a single power source? On the ground - the windshield heating is inhibited. In Flight - only the left windshield heat is powered. (or, right windshield heat is powered if the left has failed) At what temperature are we considered in icing conditions? 10ºC (50ºF) SAT - on the ground/ takeoff TAT - in flight When must the engine anti ice be on ? During all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist, or When ICE is annunciated by the ice detection system, except in climb or cruise when temperature is below -40ºC SAT How many Ice Detectors is the airplane equipped with ? 2 What would happen with the failure of one Ice Detector ? If the remaining detector senses an icing condition, the system automatically activates the ENGINE and WING anti-ice system. When the ice detectors automatically activate the engine and wing anti-ice, how long will they remain activated? for 5 minutes after the detector is no longer sensing an icing condition. What happens when the ICE PROTECTION MODE selector knob is in AUTO? Allows automatic operation of the anti-ice system. How can you override the system logic and turn the anti-ice system on. ? Select the ICE PROTECTION selector knob to "ON" What happens when you select the WINDSHIELD WIPER selector knob to timer ? they operate on a 7 sec intermittent operation What happens to the engine bleed valve with the loss of electrical power? The engine bleed valve is fail safe open. What control surfaces are heated by the wing anti-ice system ? The 3 outboard leading edge slats on each wing What happens in the event of a bleed air source failure ? The system automatically opens the bleed crossfeed valve supplying bleed from one engine to both sides. Are the AIR DATA SMART (ADS) PROBES and TAT probes heated ? YES, anytime either engine is running. What happens if you operate the windshield wiper system on a dry windshield ? They will stop and remain inoperative until the wiper control is et to OFF. How would you configure the ENGINE and WING anti-ice system for automatic operation ? The ENGINE 1(2) ICE PROTECTION pushbuttons must be in OFF/ENG/ALL must be selected on the MCDU TO DATASET menu What happens when ALL is selected in the REF ALL line in the MCDU and the ice protection selector knob is in AUTO? The ENGINE anti-ice valves are commanded open after the completion of the engine start, and The WING anti-ice valves are commanded open with wheel speed above 40 knots The EICAS message END TDS REF A-I ALL will be displayed to confirm the MCDU selection. When do we use the Ice Protection TEST selector knob ? The TEST function is a maintenance procedure only What is the DUMP pushbutton used for? Used for emergency evacuation, smoke evacuation, and fast cabin de-pressurization. What happens to the Recirculation Fans when the DUMP button is pushed, or smoke is detected in the recirculation bay? The recirculation fans are commanded OFF What happens when the PACK 1(2) pushbutton switch is in? Allows automatic operation of the pack valve by the AMS controller. Is a single pack capable of maintaining adequate cabin/cargo pressurization and temperature? YES What is the maximum cruise altitude with only 1 pack operating ? FL310 What happens when the XBLEED pushbutton is in ? Allows automatic operation of the crossbleed valve by the AMS controller What happens when one side provides manifold pressure and there is not a bleed air source on the opposite side when the XBLEED pushbutton is in ? The crossbleed valve is commanded open. What happens when the BLEED 1(2) pushbutton is in ? Allows automatic operation of the bleed valve by the AMS controller. What happens when the BLEED APU pushbutton is pushed in ? Allows automatic operation of the APU bleed valve by the AMS controller. Can the engine bleed air flow to the APU when the engine is running ? NO, the APU check valve will prevent engine bleed airflow to the APU. When the engine and APU bleed are available simultaneously and the airplane is on the ground, or the opposite engine bleed pressure is below the minimum for engine start, which has priority ? The APU will supply bleed Can the APU bleed be used for the anti-ice system ? NO What protects the bleed system from an overheat condition ? The overheat detection system. When is the Emergency Ram Air Valve commanded open ? When all the following is true: - aircraft in flight - both packs failed or OFF - airplane is less than 25,000 feet How many channels does the Cabin Pressure Controller have ? The CPC has 2 independent automatic channels that alternate each flight. What prevents the cabin from negative pressure ? The Negative Pressure Relief Valve (NPRV) Does the positive pressure relief valve require electrical power to operate ? NO What happens to the Landing Field Elevation (LFE) in the ABORT mode ? In the ABORT mode the cabin pressure is scheduled back to the takeoff altitude. When do yo get [CABIN ALTITUDE HI] EICAS message ? Cabin altitude is at or above 9,700' What components make up the pressurization system ? - Cabin Pressure Controller (CPC) - Cabin Outflow Valve (OFV) - Negative Pressure Relief Valve (NPRV) - Positive Pressure Relief Valve (Safety Valve) - Static Pressure Port When will the ECS Packs close automatically ? - Bleed source is not available - The respective pack button is OFF - Any engine starting and WOW (both close) - The respective engine is starting, No WOW and opposite engine is not starting - Any engine is starting and APU is the bleed source - Respective bleed system duct leak - Respective Pack BIT failure [PACK 1(2) FAIL] EICASS message When will the Engine Bleed Valve (EBV) open automatically ? - Respective bleed switch set to AUTO - Respective engine bleed is available - No fire detected in the respective engine - No bleed duct leak is detected What is protected by the Overheat Detection System (ODS) ? - Engine Bleeds - APU Bleeds - Air conditioning ducts - Anti-ice supply ducts Are there any times when the magnetic compass indications are invalid When transmitting on VHF #1 Standbye Compass..............Checked What are you checking for? Cross checking heading against ilot & copilot HSI on the PFD/MFD What is the minimum height for autopilot engagement? 400 feet What is the minimum height for autopilot coupled ILS approach? 50 feet What does the SRC button do ? It alternates the Captain and FO AFCS side as the data source. What does the green arrow on the FMA panel indicate ? The selected AFCS source DISPLAy CONTROLLER UNIT.......SET What are you setting ? Set the current airport altimeter What happens when the DISPLAY selector on the reversionary panel is set to AUTO ? Automatically reverts the MFD in case of a display failure. What indication would you get when you push the SENSOR ADS or IRS pushbuttons ? a white striped bar illuminates on the button. PFD.......................CHECKED What are some items you are checking for on the PFD ? 1. Airspeed tape - no speed 2. EADI - level and no flags 3. Altitude tape - within limits (+/- 75 feet) 4. VSI - zero 5. EHSI and compass - same heading and no flags MFD.....................CHECKED What are you checking for ? Look for green indications (no amber) [HOBO] Hydraulic - fluid quantity & pressure Oil - engine oil quantities Brake - accumulator pressure Oxygen - quantity (green,cyan,amber) What does the IESS do ? Displays the following: Attitude(pitch & roll) altitude indicated airspeed When is the IESS powered ? When the batteries are switched to AUTO How is the IESS powered in an emergency ? by the RAT or by the batteries What type of approaches are not authorized using the IESS ? LOC Backcourse What is the GND PROX TERR INHIB button used for ? Inhibits EGPWS and thus avoids unwanted terrain alerts when operating into airports not covered by the EGPWS database What is the GND PROX G/S INHIB button used for ? momentary pushbutton annunciator used to manually cancel glideslope alerts. Illuminates when pressed anytime below 2,000 ft nominal radar altitude Automatically reset (light off) by climbing above 2,000 ft or descending below 30 ft What is the GND PROX FLAP OVRD button used for ? Inhibits triggering flap alerts in case of landing where flap configuration is different from normal landing flaps What is indicated when the clock displays dashes (----) No GPS signal is detected When is the GRD PROX GS IHIBIT button used ? to manually cancel glideslope alerts anytime below 2,000' will automatically be reset by climbing above 2,000' or descending below 30' What controls engine starting and provides hung start, hot start, and no light off protection FADEC How is the FADEC powered? The FADEC has it's own alternator above approx 50% N2 backed up by the airplanes electrical system. How many channels does the FADEC have ? 2 1 is always active, while the other is an automatic backup. How is the ATTCS system controlled? FADEC If the ATTCS is selected OFF for takeoff, will it be available for go-around? YES, it will be armed automatically during the go-around mode. What is a Flexible Thrust take-off ? a reduced thrust takeoff based on an assumed temperature. How are engine thrust ratings controlled ? by the FADEC How long is the Go-Around mode limited to in the go-around phase ? 5 min The FADEC has four idle modes, what are they ? Flight Approach Final Approach Ground Where would you set the TO thrust rate mode and TO temperature? T/O DATASET MENU on the MCDU What happens when the EICAS FULL pushbutton is pushed in? The automatic EICAS de-clutter logic is inhibited What will cause the RAT to extend automatically ? Whenever AC buses lose power Will the emergency generator suppy power immediately after automatic RAT deployment ? No, the RAT has an 8 sec spool up time. The batteries supply power to the DC ESS BUSES and STANDBY AC BUS during that time What is the minimum speed required to ensure RAT operation ? 130 kts Is there an altitude restriction for operation of the RAT ? NO How would you deploy the RAT in case of an automatic deployment failure ? Use the RAT manual deploy handle How do you test the cockpit door ? Close and lock the cockpit door and press the TEST button n the COCKPIT DOOR panel. Check the aural and UNLOCKED indications. Push in the LOCK button and check the electromechanical latch normal operation. Press the EMERG CALL button on the door control panel in the passenger cabin and check normal function. Push the LOCK button to unlock the cockpit door. What is the minimum runway length for LAHSO ? 6,000'-6,700' depending on field elevation. refer to LAHSO chart in ch7 of FOM What is the "Dark and Quiet" cockpit concept? While in flight, all systems are normal when... - The overhead, main, glareshield, and control pedestal panels have no lights on. - No aural warnings are being issued, and - The selector knobs are positioned at 12 o'clock. What does the white bar stripe on any cockpit switch indicate ? The switch is not in the normal position When does EICAS automatic mode de-clutter occur after takeoff? 30 seconds after .. Gear UP Flaps/Slats UP APU OFF All normal indications Name a few items that are de-cluttered on the EICAS after takeoff -Oil Pressure -Oil Temp -Engine Vibration -Slat Position -Flap Position -Speed Brake Position -Landing Gear Position -Pitch Trim Green Band When is the EICAS de-clutter feature disabled ? -Gear extended -APU is operating -Speedbrakes extended How do you switch to standby lamps on the NAV lights? Panel behind the FO seat under direction of MX Control How are the photo luminescent escape path strips charged ? prior to the first flight of the day by interior cabin lighting ? When is the passenger door escape slide automatically disarmed? When the door is opened from the outside What is the purpose of the vent flap on the passenger and service doors ? To relieve residual cabin pressure prior to opening the doors. Are door warnings provided for all doors and hatches in the pressurized vessel? Yes, an EICAS CAUTION message displays When will the reinforced cockpit door latch open ? After the fourth emergency call chime cycle ends. The door will open if the INHIB pushbutton is not pushed within 30 seconds after EMERG CALL pushbutton activation. What pressurizes the potable water central storage system ? Engine and APU bleed air. What are the 4 alert levels EICAS provides to the crew ? Warning Caution Advisory Status What happens when a new warning, caution, advisory, or status are displayed? They are presented flashing in inverse video. What is the purpose of the aural warning? Aural warnings are used when the pilot needs immediate knowledge of a condition without needing to look at a visual display or indicator. What are the items that will generate the dedicated takeoff configuration aural warning? 1. FLAPS not in takeoff position 2. PARKING BRAKES are applied 3. PITCH TRIM out of the green range 4. any SPOILER panel deployed How can the flight crew reset the SPDA remote electronic CB's ? Via the MCDU What is the source priority order for powering the AC main buses ? - Onside (Respective IDG) - Inside (APU generator) - Outside (GPU) - Cross side (Opposite IDG) Does the cool down period apply to the EMERG STOP push button to the APU ? NO What is indicated by an illuminated red bar in the upper half of the APU EMER STOP button ? APU fire When does APU electrical and pneumatic loading become available ? 3 seconds after APU speed has reached 95% What indication would you have of an APU automatic shutdown ? An "APU FAIL" EICAS caution message. Will the APU auto shutdown in flight for an APU fire ? No What supplies fuel to the APU when DC power is the only electrical power available ? The DC fuel pump, after APU start, the AC pump takes over. How is fuel fed to the APU when the engines are running ? The ejector fuel pumps feeds fuel from the right fuel tank. Can you refuel the airplane without APU/EXT power ? Yes How would you check fuel quantity if the electric fuel quantity indicator fails ? With the magnetic level indicators What would be the indication of a fuel imbalance ? An EICAS "FUEL IMBALANCE" caution is displayed when the imbalance equals or exceeds 800 lbs and remains on until the imbalance is reduced to 100 lbs. Where would the fuel system indications and parameters be displayed? On the MFD synoptic pages and the EICAS What is the function of the AC fuel pump ? The AC pump is a backup pump supplying fuel to the engines in the event of an ejector pump fail, or during engine start. What indication do you have that the fire-extinguishing bottle has been discharged ? An ENG FIREXBTL A(B) DISCH advisory on EICAS. What indication do you have when both fire-detector loops have failed ? APU FIRE DET FAIL caution on the EICAS ENG 1(2) FIRE DET FAIL Can you dispatch with 1 fire detection loop inoperative ? Yes What occurs after smoke detection in the FWD cargo compartment ? The recirculating fan shuts off and the ventilation outflow valve closes. What happens when you push the FIRE EXTINGUISHER CARGO SMOKE pushbutton ? The high rate bottle is discharged immediately into the selected cargo compartment. 1 minute later the low rate bottle is discharged at a reduced rate for 60 minutes Can the low rate fire-extinguishing bottle be discharged before 1 minute has elapsed ? Yes, by pressing the associated pushbutton again. Will the low rate fire-extinguishing bottle discharge automatically on the ground after 1 minute ? No, the flight crew must push the cargo fire-extinguishing pushbutton again. What EICAS warning would be the indication of a lavatory smoke/ fire ? "LAV SMOKE" When would the Lavatory fire-extinguishing bottle be discharged ? When the temperature inside the waste container is high What position of the IGNITION SELECTOR KNOB does the FADEC disregard in flight ? OFF What does N1 WING ANTI-ICE cyan line during final approach indicate? The minimum thrust level (N1) to meet bleed requirements. Does the FADEC protect against hot or hung starts for in-flight engine starts ? No What is indicated when an amber WML icon is displayed next to the respective engine N2 indication ? An engine has flammed out and the FADEC has automatically turned on both igniters and is attempting an auto relight. What action must be taken if the auto relight does not occur within 30 seconds ? The start should be manually terminated by moving the start/stop selector knob to STOP position. What provides the interlock function to protect against inadvertent thrust reverser deployment and stowing ? FADEC What position must the thrust levers be in to enable the thrust reverser trigger? Idle What happens to the thrust reverser within 30 seconds after an engine inoperative condition is detected ? The thrust reverser trigger cannot be released. How many channels does the FADEC have ? 2 1 channel is always active, while the other one is an automatic backup How is the FADEC powered ? Above 50% N2 the FADEC is powered by the PMA (Permanent Magnet Alternator) Below this value (or if PMA becomes inop) the airplanes electrical system provides backup power. How does the FADEC use the 2 igniters for an engine start on the ground ? The FADEC alternates the use of igniters at each engine start. What is the ATTCS (Automatic Thrust Control System) and how is it controlled ? The ATTCS is controlled by the FADEC and is available on takeoff and go-around. The selection is made in the MCDU - TAKEOFF DATA SET MENU page and the indication is displayed on the EICAS as follows: ATTCS (white) - system is armed ATTCS (green) - system is engaged The engagement only happens when the thrust levers reach the TO/GA position The selection from ON to OFF must be in accordance with performance calculations What indication would you see when the ATTCS has been activated ? Whenever the ATTCS is activated, the green ATTCS indication on the EICAS disappears and the cyan thrust mode will be displayed with an additional RSV indication Can you transfer hydraulic fluid between systems ? No What is the PTU and what is it used for ? Power Transfer Unit It is a mechanical pump which is driven by system 1 hydraulic pressure, and uses system 2 hydraulic fluid to assist in gear retraction in the event of EDP 2 or engine 2 failure. When does the PTU operate ? During takeoff and landing, with the selector knob in AUTO position the hydraulic system logic activates the PTU if the engine #2 or EDP 2 fails. The PTU will automatically be started when all the following exist: - Flaps other than 0º OR landing gear not up and locked - EDP 1 not failed - Hydraulic reservoir 2 quantity above 12% Note: PTU will not be activated if the aircraft is on the ground What is the primary power source for hydraulic system 1 and 2 ? the respective engine driven pump (EDP) What is used as a backup for the engine driven hydraulic pump? The AC electric driven pump When is the electric hydraulic pump activated ? With the electric hydraulic pump selector knob in AUTO, whenever an EDP fails or for takeoff and landing when the flaps are not set to zero position. What is the primary power source for hydraulic system 3 ? The electric hydraulic pump 3A What is electric hydraulic pump 3B used for, and when does it operate? as a backup for electric hydraulic pump 3A, and is activated whenever the hydraulic pump selector knob is in auto and the electric pump 3A fails. What happens when you push the ramp button on the audio control panel ? The ramp button bar will illuminate and you can use the mike on your headset to communicate with ground assuming the headset is plugged in at the external power panel. What happens when you operate the Master Control Knob on the ACP ? The knob will adjust the volume on the most recently selected audio What is the position keeping priority for the FMS ? GPS DME/DME IRS Dead Reckoning Can the IRU be aligned in flight ? Yes, the align in motion takes between 15-30 minutes Will the MFD automatically revert to the PFD in the event of a malfunction of the PFD ? YES What are the equivalent Visibility values for the RVR's 1600 - 1/4 2400 - 1/2 3200 - 5/8 4000 - 3/4 4500 - 7/8 5000 - 1 6000 1 1/4 What happens when the vertical speed exceeds 4,000 FPM The pointer pegs and the digital display shows the actual vertical speed. How many portable fire extinguishers, PBE, and POB are on thee 175 (76 seat UA or AA)? 5- Portable Halon fire extinguishers 4- PBE 3- POB Where are the portable halon fire extinguishers located (76 seat) 1 - behind the captain in the cockpit 2 - wardrobe 1 - left aft bulkhead - galley side 1 - right aft bulkhead - galley side What does it mean when the battery associated digits turn RED ? The batt temp has reached 70ºC for 2 seconds. [BATT 1(2) OVERTEMP] EICAS message is also displayed During an electrical emergency how long will the batteries supply power? 10 minutes or until the RAT comes online During and electrical emergency what is instruments are available ? DU2 (PFD) DU3 IESS Clock MCDU 2 CCD 1 Mag Compass ? Audio Panels ? What is the minimum battery voltage to close the battery bus ties ? 18 VDC How would you start the APU if The battery temp was below -20ºC ? Connect the DC GPU which powers the APU Start Bus and isolates BATT 2 What is the purpose of the DC GPU ? For APU start when the batteries are 22.5 VDC or -20ºC What's on the AC Standby BUS ? Engine Exciters 1A and 2A When will the RAT deploy ? Automatically with the loss of AC power (AC BUS1 & AC BUS2) Manually by the pilot What is the RAT electrically rated for ? 115 VAC 400 HZ /3 phase 15 KVA What BUSES does the RAT power ? AC ESS BUS and AC STDBY BUS DC ESS BUS 1,2,3 HOTT BATT BUS 1,2 BATT 1,2 charging What is loadshed at RAT deployment ? Galley power FO windshield heat What is minimum speed for RAT deployment ? 130 kts The QRH [electrical emergency] says 150 kts to ensure the TRU ESS contactor closes to power the DC ESS BUSSES. What is an ICC ? Integrated Control Center An electronic control device, which provides power distribution and protection for electrical loads. Thermal CB's LRU's LRM's AC/DC buses EICC - fwd ebay LICC & RICC - mid ebay AICC - aft ebay What is an SPDA ? Secondary Power Distribution Assembly An electronic load management unit that receives power from the ICC's and distributes it to the airplane systems slots containing electronic modules SPDA1 - fwd ebay SPDA2 - mid ebay *The ICC collect and confirm power is safe and sends it to the SPDA's , which distribute it to aircraft systems What is an MAU ? Modular Avionics Unit (3 of them) Cabinets that house modules assigned to different functions in an integrated architecture and also avionics and non avionics functions. Such as: Autopilot Autothrottles Flight Director FMS FCM GPS Stall protection Windshear protection MAU1 and MAU2 are in FWD Ebay MAU 3 is in the MID Ebay What powers the IESS in case of an electrical emergency ? RATT/ or batteries During dual engine failure the checklist says minimum airspeed 265 kts. Why? Windmill speed for start envelope. If you start the engine with not enough airflow, you risk core locking the engine. You board a de powered airplane and proceed to establish power. what panel should you check first ? Galley electronic panel (behind cockpit door) Ground service busses must be disconnected prior to applying power through AC GPU What happens if only the ground personnel push their GPU button ? Their button shows IN USE while the cockpit still shows AVAIL. only the ground service buses are powered How many fuel pumps are on the aircraft ? 13 2 Primary Ejector pumps 6 Scavenger pumps 2 ACMPs 1 DCMC 2 Engine driven pumps How many fuel tanks ? 2 integral wing tanks each wing tank incorporates: collector tank surge tank What is the collector tank for ? keeps fuel pumps submerged to ensure constant flow of fuel to the respective engine located on the inboard section of each wing What is the surge/vent tank for? collects fuel during wing low maneuvers and returns it to main tank once wings are level. equalizes tank pressure with atmosphere inflight and during refueling. located on the tip of each wing How is fuel quantity measured ? 13 electrical fuel sensors in each wing 3 magnetic level indicators under each wing Where is the fuel tank temperature taken from ? Left wing What is the primary purpose of the DCMP ? Provides pressurized fuel for normal APU operation and engine start, when No AC power or ACMP is available. What is the purpose of the scavenger pumps? maintains fuel levels in the collector box What protects the fuel tank from over pressurization ? pressure relief valve When does the X-FEED valve open automatically ? During refueling When will [FUEL 1(2) LO LEVEL] EICAS message be presented? 660 lbs of fuel remaining in associated tank Why during dual engine failure do you put the fuel XFEED to LOW1 ? To allow DCMP to get fuel to the #1 engine when on RAT/Batteries What does the pilot need to do if he will operate into reserve fuel ? Declare min fuel How does Republic calculate EXTRA fuel ? Min of 25 minutes of extra fuel at a holding burn rate at 10,000' When should Fuel Emergency or Min Fuel be declared ? projected landing with : 45 min = Min Fuel 30 min = Emergency When does the fuel number indications on the EICASS turn AMBER/ RED ? Amber - 1320/ side Red - 660 / side Describe the engine fire detection system 2 loops (gaseous - type) 8 detectors (pneumatic) loops are connected to MAU 1 & MAU3 Both loops must detect a fire to give indication (unless 1 is inoperative, then just 1) Describe the APU fire detection system 2 loops (gaseous-type) 2 detectors (pneumatic) loops are connected to MAU1 & MAU3 Both loops must detect an overheat to get a fire indication (unless 1 loops is inop, then just 1) What happens if the APU EMER STOP button is not pushed after a fire has been detected ? After 1 minute the APU FIRE EXTG button will iluminate How many smoke detectors are in the cargo compartment ? FWD -3 AFT - 2 What happens to the Fwd cargo compartment in the event smoke is detected ? -Cargo Recirculation fan shuts off -Cargo Ventilation outflow valve closes - The 2 RECIRC fans in the RECIRC bay also shut off *Prevents oxygen from entering the compartments *Prevents Halon from escaping into the cabin Can 1 cargo fire extinguishing bottle be used for 1 compartment and the other bottle be used for the other compartment ? No. both bottles must go to one or the other What happens if you hold the FIRE TEST button down for more than 10 seconds ? If the APU is on - it will shut down Describe the APU Constant Speed Single-stage impeller 2-stage axial flow turbine independent oil system What is the fuel source for the APU ? -Right fuel tank -Left fuel tank through the crossfeed valve When does the APU electrical and pneumatics become available ? 3 seconds after APU has reached 95 % What indication would you have of an APU auto-shutdown ? [ APU FAIL ] EICAS caution message What will happen if batteries are shut OFF during the APU 1 minute cool down period ? APU will shut down immediately When will automatic shutdown of the APU occur ? Ground: - Overspeed - Underspeed - FADEC critical fault - Fire - EGT Overtemp - Sensor Failure - High Oil Temperature - Low Oil Pressure Flight: - Overspeed - Underspeed - FADEC Critical fault How would you use the APU while using fuel tank 1 ? Select XFEED selector to LOW2 Can the APU be started after a critical fault ? NO APU provides bleed for what ? Engine start Air conditioning Pressurization Water pressurization What systems use hydraulic power ? Flight Controls Spoilers Landing gear Nose wheel steering brakes Thrust Reversers What are the basic components of the hydraulic system ? Reservoir Pumps Accumulator What is the normal hydraulic pressure ? 3000 psig Why do you wait until after power up to turn on hydraulic pumps ? To allow flight controls to complete built in test How long should you wait after power up to turn on hydraulics ? 3 minutes, for flight control PBIT When will the hydraulic ACMP 1 or 2 come on automatically ? Ground: - Flaps 0, and - TLA set to T/O , or - GS 50 kts Flight: - Engine Failure or EDP failure or -Flaps 0 When will cause a [HYD 1(2) HI TEMP] EICAS message to be displayed? 100ºC - [HYD 1(2) HI TEMP] 125ºC - Hydraulic SOV will automatically close 145ºC - [HYD1(2) OVERHEAT] *Hydraulic SOV can manually be activated through the guarded push button When will the PTU automatically activate ? During T/O and Landing with PTU in AUTO: - EDP2 fails or Engine 2 fails and - Flaps 0 or Landing gear not up and locked - EDP1 not failed - HYD SYS2 quantity above 12% Why do we need a PTU when the #2 electric pump is the back up to #2 engine pump ? The flow rate of #2 electric pump is not great enough to operate the landing gear What does the FADEC do with the Hydraulic system 1 or 2 in the event of an engine flameout? depressurizes the respective EDP to facilitate engine windmill RPM (reduces torque for restart) How is single engine taxi possible if nose wheel steering is on HYD system 2 ? Releasing the parking brake activates ACMP2 if EDP2 is not operating. -It remains on for 6 minutes after parking brake is applied When do the HYD SYS1 (2) ELEC pumps operate automatically? With the Selector knob in auto the ACMP will activate In Flight: -EDP fails or -flaps 0 For T/O (on the ground) -Flaps 0 and -TL set to T/O or - GS 50 kts What hydraulic ACMP will function if the RAT is the only power source ? 3A (powered through AC ESS BUS) What provides hydraulic pressure for SYS3 during an electrical emergency ? Initially the accumulator provides pressure until the RAT is deployed and the AC ESS BUS is powered. Then HYD SYS pump 3A provides the pressure During an electric emergency can HYD 3A power requirements overload the RAT? NO. Pump Unloader Valve - reduces the discharge pressure of 3A. This reduces pump torque and therefore reduces the electrical power required to start the pump. Flow Limiter Valve - reduces flow and limits pump electrical power draw to prevent RAT stall. What systems use HYD SYS 1 ? - L.H. Outboard Elevator - Upper Rudder - L.H. Thrust Reverser - Ground Spoilers 2 - M.F. Spoilers 3 & 4 - Outboard Brakes What Systems use Hydraulic SYS 2 ? - L.H. & R.H. Inboard Elevator - L.H. & R.H. Inboard Ailerons - R. H. Thrust Reverser - Ground Spoiler 1 - M.F. Spoiler 5 - Inboard Brakes - Landing Gear - Nose Wheel Steering What Systems use HYD SYS 3 ? R.H. Outboard Elevator Lower Rudder L.H. & R.H. Outboard Ailerons What is the flow rate of hydraulic system 1,2 & 3 SYS 1 & 2 EDP - 11.5 GPM SYS 3 ACMP - 3.0 GPM The Hydraulic PBIT will not run if the reservoir is below what ? 10ºC What does the AMS use bleed air for ? - ECS - Engine start - Pressurization - Engine & wing anti-ice - Water pressurization - Hot air leak detection What makes up the pressurization systems - Cabin Pressure Controller (CPC) - Out Flow Valve (OFV) - Negative Pressure Relief Valve (NPRV) - Positive Pressure Relief Valve - Static Pressure Port How many AMS controllers are there ? 1 controller with 2 channels (1 channel controls each side) if 1 channel fails the other channel can run entire system. How would the APU BLEED or Engine BLEED button show a detected leak ? Amber bar in the top half of the button. bottom half will be a white bar - indicates valve is closed. What can external pneumatic air be used for ? - ECS - Engine Start How does the flight attendant know if they have control of the cabin temp setting. an ENABLED led turns on when the pilot selects ATTND in the cockpit How many bleed regulating valves are in each wing ? - High Stage Bleed Valve (HSBV) - Engine Bleed Valve (EBV) *there is also a Low Stage Bleed Check Valve on stage 6. where is bleed air taped from the engines ? Low stage check valve - stage 6 compressor HSBV - stage 10 compressor What is normal engine bleed pressure ? 45 psi Wha is the purpose of the pre-cooler ? cools the bleed air coming from the engine to the AMS What cools the pre-cooler ? Ground - N1 fan Flight - N1 fan or ram air What does the Overheat Detection System (ODS) observe ? - Engine bleeds - APU bleed - Air conditioning ducts - Pluming for engine & wing anti-ice How many loops does the ODS use 2 sensor loops, each loop with dual overheat detection sensors, located in 6 different zones What is the ratio of fresh air to recirculated air - 52 % fresh air - 48 % recirculated air When are the RECIRC fans commanded OFF - RECIRC button pushed out - Smoke detected in RECIRC bay - DUMP button pressed - Both packs OFF - Cargo bay FIRE signal - Fire Test button pressed - Cabin warm-up mode on the ground when the APU is the bleed source What is the normal position of the gasper shutoff valve ? Closed, allowing gasper air from the mixing manifold. It opens when the gasper air supply exceeds 35ºC (95ºF) and air from the right RECIRC fan supplies the gasper air to prevent hot air from blowing on the PAX When is the Emergency Ram Air Ventilation commanded open ? Both Packs commanded OFF below 25,000' What controls the Ram Air check valve ? Only pressure. It will open when pressure within the ram circuit is greater than cabin pressure Where does CPC get LFE? FMS or manually In manual mode will the cabin depressurize on landing ? NO What is the bleed priority in flight ? - Onside engine - Opposite engine - APU When will APU Bleed Valve Open? - APU Bleed in AUTO - APU Bleed is available - No APU or Left bleed duct leak - Left engine bleed unavailable - Anti - ice not requested (or anti-ice ON but failed) What side of the XBLEED is the GND CONN air connect ? Right side What side of the XBLEED does the APU Bleed air connect ? Left side What are some things that will close the ECS PACKS ? - Engine start if APU is the bleed source (both packs close) - Engine start & WOW (both close) - Respective bleed system duct leak - Respective PACK button OFF - ECS OFF during T/O and Go-around How many smoke detectors in the recirculation bay? 1 if s