(solution) EMT-B Midterm Chapters 1-23

EMT-B Midterm Chapters 1-23 Questions & Answers. An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called: A. paramedic. B. advanced EMT (AEMT). C. EMT. D. EMR. If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should: A. avoid purchasing the device because this claim is unrealistic. B. recognize that this does not mean it will save more lives. C. purchase the device based solely on the manufacturer's claim. D. determine which device the American Heart Association suggests. An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to: A. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful. B. reassure him or her that everything will be all right, even if it will not be. C. ignore the patient's feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint. D. demand the patient to be quiet and cooperative during transport. What type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe? A. direct B. off-line C. online D. radio The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the: A. regional trauma center. B. American Heart Association. C. state office of EMS. D. National Registry of EMTs. Why are prehospital emergency care guidelines updated on a regular basis? A. EMS providers should be encouraged to actively participate in research and become familiar with data analysis. B. Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed. C. The federal government requires that changes be made to existing emergency care protocols at least every 5 years. D. Statistical data indicate that an increasing number of people are being diagnosed with a particular illness. The ____________ deals with the well-being of the EMT, career progression, and EMT compensation. A. human resources department B. local public health department C. office of the medical director D. EMS administrator or chief Which of the following statements regarding the EMS medical director and an EMT's scope of practice is correct? A. The EMS medical director can expand the EMT's scope of practice but cannot limit it without state approval. B. An EMT's scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and state approval. C. An EMT's scope of practice is exclusively regulated by the state EMS office, not the EMS medical director. D. The EMS medical director can expand or limit an individual EMT's scope of practice without state approval. According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to: A. insert a peripheral intravenous (IV) line and infuse fluids. B. interpret a basic electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly. C. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications. D. administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route. As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on: A. your local EMS protocols. B. an order from a paramedic. C. the patient's condition. D. the transport time to the hospital. EMRs such as fire fighters, law enforcement officers, and park rangers, are an integral part of the EMS system because: A. they are trained to assist paramedics with certain procedures. B. they can initiate ALS before EMS arrival. C. the presence of a person trained to initiate basic life support (BLS) care cannot be ensured. D. the average response time for the EMT crew is approximately 15 minutes. Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct? A. EMS training standards are regulated by the NREMT. B. The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs. C. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing. D. The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs. Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the: A. State Bureau of EMS. B. EMS training officer. C. EMS medical director. D. individual EMT. Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct? A. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to the disabled. B. The ADA only applies to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical disability. C. The requirements to successfully complete an EMT program are different for those who are disabled. D. According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the administration of ALS? A. a 61-year-old trauma patient whose chest is decompressed with a needle B. a 53-year-old patient who is given glucagon for significant hypoglycemia C. a 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an automated external defibrillator (AED) D. a 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a multilumen device Cardiac monitoring, pharmacological interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: A. paramedic. B. EMT. C. AEMT. D. EMR. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy? A. protecting a patient's spine from further injury after a fall from a significant height B. community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving C. the construction of a guardrail on a dangerous curve following a fatal motor vehicle crash D. teaching a group of new parents how to perform one- and two-rescuer infant CPR The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on: A. the lead EMT's decision. B. regional trauma guidelines. C. local protocols. D. EMS research. The criteria to be licensed and employed as an EMT include: A. proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases. B. successful completion of a recognized bystander cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) course. C. demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds. D. a minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care. Which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure? A. Due to an improperly applied cervical collar, a patient's spinal injury is aggravated and he is permanently disabled. B. A patient is given nitroglycerin by an EMT who did not obtain proper authorization from medical control first. C. An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug. Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training? A. AED B. oral glucose for hypoglycemia C. intranasal medication administration D. use of a manually triggered ventilator Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? A. a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured B. a vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting C. a team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the: A. EMS administrator. B. shift supervisor. C. medical director. D. field training officer. Laypeople are often trained to perform all of the following skills, EXCEPT: A. insertion of an oropharyngeal airway. B. control of life-threatening bleeding. C. splinting of a possible fracture. D. one- or two-rescuer CPR. According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office in order to: A. use an automatic transport ventilator. B. apply and interpret a pulse oximeter. C. give aspirin to a patient with chest pain. D. perform blood glucose monitoring. EMT training in nearly every state meets or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the: A. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA). B. National Association of EMTs. C. individual state's EMS protocols. D. National Registry of EMTs. As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on: A. an order from a paramedic. B. the transport time to the hospital. C. the patient's condition. D. your local EMS protocols. Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? A. a vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting B. a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured C. a team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients D. a system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients The ability to understand others and have them understand you is known as __________. Select one: A. self-confidence B. scene leadership C. communication D. teamwork and diplomacy Which of the following courses requires about 150 hours of training? Select one: A. EMT B. Paramedic C. EMR D. AEMT What is an EMT's primary service area? Select one: A. The area serviced by the EMT's medical director B. The main area in which the EMS agency operates C. The only area the EMT is certified to provide patient care D. The location where the EMT provides essential care during a 9-1-1 call The ability to handle multiple tasks based on their priority is called __________. Select one: A. integrity B. patient advocacy C. patient empathy D. time management The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on: Select one: A. the lead EMT's decision. B. regional trauma guidelines. C. local protocols. D. EMS research. National guidelines for EMS care are intended to __________. Select one: A. provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the United States B. facilitate a national EMS labor group C. unify EMS providers under a single medical director D. reduce expenses at the local and state levels Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct? Select one: A. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled. B. The ADA applies only to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical disability. C. According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam. D. The minimum number of hours required to successfully complete an EMT course is less for candidates who are disabled. Prehospital patient care decisions should be based on __________. Select one: A. the experiences of EMTs B. EMS research C. the opinions of physicians D. an EMS agency's fiscal resources American Heart Association protocols are based on __________. Select one: A. theories ready for field trial B. opinions from a core group of cardiologists C. trends in the EMS community D. evidence-based research You are caring for a driver who struck a light pole. She admits to drinking alcohol but orders you not to tell anyone. You should report the information to __________. Select one: a. the receiving nurse or doctor b. your medical director c. the state motor vehicle department d. law enforcement personnel After assessing a patient's blood glucose level, you accidentally stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should: Select one: A. report the incident to your supervisor after the call. B. discontinue patient care and seek medical attention. C. immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution. D. get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible. General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases? Select one: A. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion B. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery C. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery D. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser: Select one: A. makes rude remarks about a person's body parts. B. stares at certain parts of another person's anatomy. C. touches another person without his or her consent. D. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else. The MOST serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is: Select one: A. substandard or inappropriate patient care. B. low morale and frequently missed shifts. C. tension among coworkers and supervisors. D. punitive action and the loss of a job. Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via: Select one: A. inanimate objects. B. direct contact. C. animals or insects. D. smoke or dust. Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction? Select one: A. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed. B. An EMT is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children. C. An EMT with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia. D. A newly certified EMT becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries. Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct? Select one: A. HIV is easily transmittable in the EMS field. B. There is no vaccine against HIV infection. C. HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood. D. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B. Which of the following would provide the EMT with the BEST cover in a situation involving active gunfire? Select one: A. A large cluster of shrubs B. Stacked empty barrels C. Behind a car door D. A concrete barricade You are transporting an elderly woman who has possibly experienced a stroke. She is obviously scared but is unable to talk and cannot move the entire right side of her body. In addition to providing the medical care that she needs, you should: Select one: A. reassure her that after proper treatment in the hospital, she will regain her speech in time. B. tell her that you understand why she is scared and that everything will likely be okay. C. maintain eye contact at all times and tell her that there is no need for her to be scared. D. acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you will take good care of her. When is forcible restraint permitted? Select one: A. Anytime that the EMT feels threatened B. When the patient poses a significant threat to self or others C. Only if law enforcement personnel have witnessed threatening behavior D. Only if consent to restrain is given by a family member As an EMT, the standards of emergency care are often partially based on: Select one: A. a consensus among paramedic supervisors. B. locally accepted protocols. C. the priorities of the medical director. D. the wishes of the general public. Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence? Select one: A. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation B. Breach of duty, injury/damages, abandonment, and causation C. Abandonment, breach of duty, damages, and causation D. Duty to act, abandonment, breach of duty, and causation The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: Select one: A. state EMS office. B. local health district. C. EMS supervisor. D. medical director. Which type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital? Select one: A. Informed B. Expressed C. Formal D. Implied You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle-versus-pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do? Select one: A. Begin transport at once and have the parents meet you en route to the hospital. B. Treat the child at the scene and wait for the parents to arrive and give consent. C. Withhold treatment until the parents arrive and give you consent for treatment. D. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital. Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: Select one: A. quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight. B. placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive. C. not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons. D. making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later. Where would you MOST likely find information regarding a patient's wishes to be an organ donor? Select one: A. Driver's license B. Social Security card C. Voter registration card D. Insurance card In which of the following circumstances can the EMT legally release confidential patient information? Select one: A. The patient is competent and signs a release form B. The family requests a copy for insurance purposes C. A media representative inquires about the patient D. A police officer requests a copy to place on file You respond to the home of a 59-year-old man who is unconscious; has slow, shallow breathing; and has a weak pulse. The family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. They further state that there is a DNR order for this patient, but they are unable to locate it. You should: Select one: A. begin treatment and contact medical control as needed. B. decide on further action once the DNR order is produced. C. transport the patient without providing any treatment. D. honor the patient's wishes and withhold all treatment. When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient's privacy by: Select one: A. using coded medical language. B. not disclosing his or her name. C. withholding medical history data. D. refraining from objective statements. You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation. Select one: A. negligence B. assault C. slander D. libel Ethnocentrism is defined as: Select one: A. subconsciously forcing your cultural values onto a patient because you feel that your own values are more acceptable. B. suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question. C. considering your own cultural values to be more important when interacting with people of a different culture. D. understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently. Which of the following will help improve radio communications? Select one: A. Use codes to speed communication. B. Answer questions with "yes" or "no." C. Wait 1 second after pressing the transmit button before speaking. D. Hold the radio at least 6 inches from your mouth. When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. speaking loudly and distinctly will ensure that the patient can hear you. B. your questions should focus exclusively on the patient's obvious problem. C. hostility and confusion should be presumed to be due to the patient's age. D. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions. A 4-year-old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother's lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child's mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should: Select one: A. reassure the child's mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about. B. ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother. C. attempt to calm the child's mother, but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase her anxiety. D. give the child a favorite toy or blanket to hold onto and perform your assessment to the best of your ability. Which of the following statements is NOT appropriate to document in the narrative section of a PCR? Select one: A. "General impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated." B. "The patient admits to smoking marijuana earlier in the day." C. "After oxygen was administered, the patient's breathing improved." D. "Significant damage was noted to the front end of the vehicle." As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should: Select one: A. place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call. B. inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once. C. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call. D. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician. During your assessment of a 20-year-old man with a severe headache and nausea, you ask him when his headache began, but he does not answer your question immediately. You should: Select one: A. repeat your question because he probably did not hear you. B. tell him that you cannot help him unless he answers your questions. C. ask him if he frequently experiences severe headaches and nausea. D. allow him time to think about the question and respond to it. You are caring for a 56-year-old male patient complaining of abdominal pain. Your service has recently switched to an electronic PCR system (ePCR). When completing the ePCR, it is important to be aware that: Select one: A. the ePCR does not contain the same level of information as the written version and your verbal report should be expanded. B. the ePCR is relatively unsecured and should not contain patient-specific information. C. a written patient care record will need to be completed on arrival at the hospital. D. the ePCR allows patient information to be transmitted directly to the receiving hospital's computers. Which of the following suffixes mean "pertaining to"? Select one: A. "-ic" and "-ology" B. "-al" and "-ology" C. "-ology" and "-oma" D. "-al" and "-ic" After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient's leg stops bleeding. This is called: Select one: A. hemostasis. B. hematemesis. C. hemiplegia. D. hemolysis. The suffix "-pathy" means: Select one: A. enlargement. B. specialist. C. study of. D. disease. The term "pericardiocentesis" means: Select one: A. surgical repair of the sac around the heart. B. narrowing of the arteries supplying the heart. C. the removal of fluid from around the heart. D. a surgical opening made in the heart. You are transporting to a 66-year-old patient with a history of heart problems. The patient chart indicates that he has hepatomegaly. The root of the term indicates that: Select one: A. the problem is unrelated to the patient's heart condition. B. the problem is with the patient's liver. C. the problem is a direct consequence of the patient's heart disease. D. the organ involved is enlarged. You are transporting a 67-year-old female patient to the hospital for investigation of abdominal pain. The patient care record indicates that the patient has a history of AAA. Based on this information, the patient care record includes an abbreviation for: Select one: A. against ambulance advice. B. acute abdominal aneurysm . C. abdominal aortic aneurysm. D. acute abdominal assessment. In relation to the chest, the back is: Select one: A. inferior. B. anterior. C. posterior. D. ventral. A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being: Select one: A. bilateral. B. proximal. C. unilateral. D. medial. "Gastro" in the word "gastroenteritis" means: Select one: A. stomach. B. tongue. C. bowel. D. intestine. A diabetic patient has polydipsia. This means that she: Select one: A. is unable to swallow. B. has low blood sugar. C. urinates frequently. D. is excessively thirsty. Which of the following structures does NOT contain smooth muscle? Select one: A. Skeletal system B. Urinary system C. Gastrointestinal tract D. Blood vessels A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is: Select one: A. lactic acid. B. heat. C. oxygen. D. nitrogen. If a patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if the patient's respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that: Select one: A. minute volume is decreased. B. inspiratory reserve is increased. C. overall tidal volume is increased. D. expiratory reserve volume is decreased. The central nervous system is composed of the: Select one: A. brain and sensory nerves. B. spinal cord and sensory nerves. C. motor and sensory nerves. D. brain and spinal cord. What happens when blood volume is lost from the body? Select one: A. Widespread vasodilation causes blood pressure to decrease. B. Arterial blood is diverted to the skin and muscles. C. The veins dilate to increase systemic perfusion. D. The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure. Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the: Select one: A. gallbladder. B. stomach. C. kidneys. D. pancreas. Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin? Select one: A. Metabolic coordination B. Temperature regulation C. Sensory reception D. Pressure and pain perception The ____________ is a muscular dome that forms the inferior boundary of the thorax, separating the thorax from the abdomen. Select one: A. costal arch B. diaphragm C. costovertebral angle D. mediastinum A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The "130" in this measurement represents: Select one: A. atrial contraction. B. ventricular relaxation. C. ventricular contraction. D. ventricular filling. Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant of the abdomen? Select one: A. Stomach B. Spleen C. Cecum D. Liver A 16-year-old female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should: Select one: A. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible. B. avoid asking questions that she will feel uncomfortable answering. C. obtain the majority of your information from one of her parents. D. recall that patients in this age group prefer not to be treated as adult Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the adolescent age group? Select one: A. Secondary sexual development begins. B. Muscle and bone growth both decrease. C. The systolic blood pressure decreases. D. The normal pulse rate steadily increases. In pre-conventional reasoning, children: Select one: A. make decisions based on their conscience. B. blame their actions on what they have observed in older children. C. look for approval from their peers and society. D. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want. You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that: Select one: A. assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs. B. the infant's proportionately small tongue often causes an airway obstruction. C. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times. D. an infant's head should be placed in a flexed position to prevent obstruction. The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of: Select one: A. 21 and 30 years. B. 25 and 35 years. C. 19 and 25 years. D. 18 and 22 years. Physical changes that typically occur in early adults include an: Select one: A. increase in fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain. B. increase in muscle strength and reflexes. C. increase in height because of spinal disc expansion. D. increase in respiratory rate due to increased metabolism. An infant's blood pressure typically increases with age because: Select one: A. as the infant gets older, his or her blood vessels dilate. B. the infant's total blood volume decreases with age. C. his or her normal heart rate usually increases with age. D. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight. Atherosclerosis is defined as ________. Select one: A. dilation of the arteries B. the blockage of a coronary artery C. constriction of the blood vessels D. the buildup of plaque inside blood vessels When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears. B. most older patients are confused due to a decrease in brain cells. C. deafness and blindness are a normal part of the process of aging. D. the majority of older patients experience a loss of low-frequency hearing The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is MOST directly related to: Select one: A. shrinkage of the brain. B. blood vessel dilation. C. meningeal deterioration. D. a decrease in neurons. In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include: Select one: A. two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher. B. increased stability from a wider wheelbase. C. weight capacity of up to 650 lb. D. a collapsible undercarriage. The proper technique for using the power grip is to: Select one: A. rotate your palms down. B. hold the handle with your fingers. C. lift with your palms up. D. position your hands about 6² apart. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury? Select one: A. Long backboard B. Scoop stretcher C. Portable stretcher D. Wheeled stretcher To protect a restrained patient and prevent him from using leverage to break free, the EMT should secure __________. Select one: A. only the patient's torso B. both arms at the patient's sides C. both arms above the head D. one arm above the head The MOST serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: Select one: A. confusion among team members. B. causing patient anxiety or fear. C. injury to you or your patient. D. unnecessarily wasting time. Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct? Select one: A. Most of the patient's weight rests on the foot end of the stretcher. B. The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso. C. A semi-sitting patient's weight is equally distributed on both ends. D. The EMT at the patient's head will bear the least amount of weight. Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should: Select one: A. apply a vest-style extrication device before attempting to move the patient. B. direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head. C. apply a cervical collar and quickly remove the patient with a clothes drag. D. slide a long backboard under his buttocks and lay him sideways on the board. You are attending to a 22-year-old female patient who has overdosed. The patient is unresponsive in an upstairs bedroom. The most appropriate way to bring the patient downstairs is: Select one: A. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the head end. B. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the foot end. C. secured to a stair chair with the strongest provider at the foot end. D. secured to a fracture board with the strongest provider at the head end. You are attending to a 34-year-old male patient who requires transport to the hospital for assessment of his chronic back pain. The patient weighs over 750 pounds. Your bariatric stretcher has a wider surface area to allow for: Select one: A. increased patient comfort and dignity. B. increased stability and leverage when lifting with more than two providers. C. increased lifting capacity and patient weight load. D. better stability when moving the patient on uneven ground. As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should: Select one: A. reposition your hands and continue to move the patient. B. guide your partner while moving the chair backwards. C. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance. D. stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs. According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office to: A. apply and interpret data from a pulse oximeter. B. insert a peripheral intravenous catheter. C. give aspirin to a patient with chest pain. D. use an automatic transport ventilator. Which of the following skills would a layperson MOST likely be trained to perform before arrival of EMS? A. Obtaining a manual blood pressure B. Administration of supplemental oxygen C. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway D. Bleeding control using a tourniquet EMT training in nearly every state meets or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the: A. individual state's EMS protocols. B. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA). C. National Association of EMTs. D. National Registry of EMTs. The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to: A. administer punitive actions to EMTs who do not follow local protocols. B. ensure that all EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office. C. focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient. D. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed. Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the: A. EMS medical director. B. individual EMT. C. EMS training officer. D. State Bureau of EMS Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: A. EMT. B. EMR. C. AEMT. D. paramedic. The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the: Select one: A. American Heart Association. B. regional trauma center. C. National Registry of EMTs. D. state office of EMS. Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS? Select one: A. A 61-year-old patient who is receiving humidified supplemental oxygen B. A 64-year-old patient who is given aspirin for suspected cardiac chest pain C. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device D. A 53-year-old patient who is assisted with his prescribed nitroglycerin An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n): Select one: A. paramedic. B. EMT. C. advanced EMT (AEMT). D. EMR. Continuing education in EMS serves to: Select one: A. enforce mandatory attendance at agency-specific training. B. confirm research and statistical findings in prehospital care. C. provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system. D. maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills. You and your partner respond to the residence of a 66-year-old male with shortness of breath. As you are assessing the patient, his wife tells you that he was recently diagnosed with lung cancer. The patient is verbally abusive and tells you that failure of the health care system caused his disease. Which stage of the grieving process is this patient's behavior consistent with? Select one: A. Anger B. Denial C. Bargaining D. Depression While you are on duty, your partner asks you out on a date and touches you in an inappropriate location without your consent. You should: Select one: A. warn your partner that you will report him or her if it happens again. B. notify law enforcement personnel and have your partner arrested. C. tell your partner to stop and report the incident to your supervisor. D. tell your partner to quit kidding around and focus on the job. The final stage of death and dying MOST commonly takes the form of: Select one: A. anger. B. acceptance. C. denial. D. depression. Critical incident stress management (CISM) can occur at an ongoing scene in all of the following circumstances, EXCEPT: Select one: A. before personnel are preparing to reenter the scene. B. when personnel are assessed during periods of rest. C. when patients are actively being assessed or treated. D. before leaving the scene after the incident is resolved. Common questions asked by patients with a serious illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. "Which hospital am I going to?" B. "Will I be permanently disabled?" C. "Am I going to die?" D. "What are you doing to me?" Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. history of chronic disease. B. distrust of EMTs. C. mental disorders. D. fear of medical personnel. The compliance-monitoring component of an infection control plan should: Select one: A. identify who to notify after an exposure and where treatment should be provided. B. ensure that employees understand what they should do and why it is important. C. address issues such as medical waste collection, storage, and ambulance disinfection. D. consist of a list of tasks that pose a risk for contact with blood or other body fluids. Which of the following statements would NOT be appropriate to say to the family of a dying patient? Select one: A. "Tell me how you are feeling." B. "This must be painful for you." C. "Things will get better in time." D. "It is okay to be angry and sad You are transporting a veteran whose legs were amputated in the war. When calling your radio report to the emergency department, which of the following words would be the MOST appropriate to use when describing the patient? Select one: A. Disabled B. Handicapped C. Deformed D. Crippled When caring for the parents of a child who has died of leukemia, the EMT should: Select one: A. refrain from using words such as "died" or "dead." B. acknowledge the death of their child in private. C. immediately refer them to a counselor. D. tell them that their feelings are understood. Which of the following signs would indicate that your partner is experiencing significant stress? Select one: A. Hyperactivity during an EMS call B. Isolation from the rest of the crew C. Increased interest in daily activities D. Acute increase in appetite You are assessing a woman who was thrown from a horse. She is located in a large field and you can see that a thunderstorm is rapidly approaching. Suddenly, you feel your skin begin to tingle and the hair on your arms stands on end. The ambulance is located about 30 yards away. You should: Select one: A. quickly cover the patient with a blanket and then lie down flat on the ground. B. immediately lie down on your side and draw your knees into your abdomen. C. sit down, bend your knees, and hold your crossed arms close to your body. D. crouch down in a position so that only your feet are touching the ground. The MOST important consideration at the scene of a hazardous materials incident is: Select one: A. evacuating the bystanders. B. calling the hazardous materials team. C. ensuring your personal safety. D. identifying the hazardous material. You arrive at the scene of a domestic violence situation. As you approach the doorway of the apartment, you hear screaming and the statement "He has a gun!" Your MOST appropriate action should be to: Select one: A. continue into the apartment and apprehend the gunman. B. continue into the apartment using extreme caution. C. get in your ambulance and leave the scene immediately. D. seek a safe place and request law enforcement assistance. What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle? Select one: A. Contact medical control. B. Request another ambulance. C. Ensure the vehicle is stable. D. Check for other patients. Carbon monoxide blocks the ability of the blood to oxygenate the body because it: Select one: A. causes the body to expel too much carbon dioxide. B. binds with the hemoglobin in red blood cells. C. destroys the number of circulating red blood cells. D. fills the alveoli in the lungs with thick secretions. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), recommended immunizations and tests include a: Select one: A. tetanus/diphtheria/pertussis booster every 10 years. B. two-shot hepatitis A vaccination series. C. smallpox vaccine every 5 years. D. TB skin test every 6 months. The BEST way to reduce your risk of contracting a work-related disease following exposure is to: Select one: A. get vaccinated against the disease you think you were exposed to. B. vigorously wash the affected area with an antimicrobial solution. C. be evaluated by a physician within 72 hours following the exposure. D. activate your department's infection control plan as soon as possible. You and your partner are EMTs who have been dispatched to stand by at the scene of a residential fire. While standing next to the ambulance observing the firefighters, you see a woman frantically moving around in her burning house. You should: Select one: A. immediately notify the incident commander or safety officer. B. stay where you are until firefighters remove her from the house. C. don a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) and rescue the woman. D. request permission from the fire chief to enter the structure. You are dispatched to the scene of a crash involving a large tanker truck. While you are en route, dispatch advises you that there are multiple patients and that the fire department is en route as well. As you approach the scene, you should: Select one: A. don personal protective equipment and quickly triage all patients. B. immediately begin evacuating residents who live near the crash site. C. maintain a safe distance and try to read the placard with binoculars. D. cordon off the area and quickly remove all of the injured patients. Which of the following statements is MOST consistent with the bargaining phase of the grieving process? Select one: A. "I will be compliant with all my medications if I can just see my grandson graduate." B. "The doctors must be wrong in their diagnosis because I have always been healthy." C. "I understand that my death is inevitable and I am ready to die when the time comes." D. "It is because of our lousy health care system that I developed this brain tumor." When considering his or her personal life, it is important for the EMT to realize that: Select one: A. he or she should not discuss stressful issues with family members. B. shift work is the least stressful type of an EMS-related work schedule. C. family or friends may not understand the stress associated with EMS. D. it is more difficult to effectively relax at home than it is while on duty. Which of the following statements regarding the hepatitis B vaccine is correct? Select one: A. Vaccination with the hepatitis B vaccine confers immunity against hepatitis A. B. OSHA requires that your employer offer you the vaccine free of charge. C. The hepatitis B vaccine provides protection against the disease for 2 years. D. Vaccination against hepatitis B provides partial immunity for life. According to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations, an employer must: Select one: A. guarantee a 100% risk-free environment prior to employment. B. offer a workplace environment that reduces the risk of exposure. C. screen all prospective employees for blood-borne pathogens. D. provide gloves and other personal protective equipment to full-time paid employees only. Which of the following infectious diseases confers no protection from reinfection after exposure? Select one: A. Rubella B. Syphilis C. Mumps D. Chickenpox A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no more than ________ hours following the incident. Select one: A. 6 B. 72 C. 12 D. 24 The MOST effective way to preserve your own body heat when functioning in cold, wet weather is to: Select one: A. wear a heavy, thick jacket or coat. B. avoid outer clothing with zippers. C. wear at least three layers of clothing. D. wear socks made of heavy-duty cotton. You are assessing a middle-aged man with chest pain that you suspect is caused by a cardiac problem. The patient tells you that he does not want to go to the hospital and insists that you leave him alone. You should: Select one: A. explain the seriousness of the situation to him, but avoid causing undue alarm. B. reassure him that he will not receive a bill for the EMS call if he cannot pay. C. tell him that he is having a heart attack and that he needs to go to the hospital. D. proceed to treat him because the stress of the situation has impaired his thinking. Which of the following is the MOST significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs? Select one: A. Immunity B. Race C. Gender D. Age While trying to make a family member feel better after a loved one has died, your partner states, "I know how you are feeling." The family members may view this as: Select one: A. coaching them through the grieving process. B. a show of respect for the person who has died. C. your partner's attempt to diminish their grief. D. your partner's caring and supportive attitude. While transporting a woman with diabetes, you inadvertently give her oral glucose even though her blood glucose level was high. You reassess the patient and note that her condition did not change; she remained stable. You should: Select one: A. contact medical control and notify them of the error. B. notify law enforcement so they can file an incident report. C. exclude this intervention from the PCR because it did not harm the patient. D. document the error and report it to your supervisor. While transporting a stable patient with chest pain to the hospital, you come across a major motor vehicle crash involving several critically injured patients. You should: Select one: A. continue transporting your patient and notify the dispatcher of the crash. B. remain at the scene until law enforcement and another ambulance arrive. C. ask a bystander to remain with your patient as you treat the crash victims. D. stop and triage the patients while your partner remains in the ambulance. To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT should: Select one: A. use universal precautions with every patient encounter. B. utilize at least four personnel when moving a patient. C. always transport patients to the hospital of their choice. D. provide competent care that meets current standards. Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence? Select one: A. Transport of a mentally incompetent patient against his or her will B. Providing care that is consistent with care provided by other EMTs C. Transferring patient care to a provider with a lower level of training D. Deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury When you and your partner arrive at the residence of a man in cardiac arrest, you immediately recognize the patient as the drunk driver who killed your brother several years earlier. A backup ambulance is en route to the scene. You should: Select one: A. advise your partner that you cannot provide care to this patient. B. begin two-rescuer CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible. C. obtain permission from medical control to not attempt resuscitation. D. wait for the backup ambulance while your partner performs CPR. A patient regains consciousness en route from his office to the emergency department. The patient tells you that he feels fine and does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should: Select one: A. document the patient's request but continue to transport him. B. request that the police place the patient under protective custody. C. have the patient sign a refusal form and return him to his office. D. assess whether the patient's mental condition is impaired. Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities? Select one: A. Cardiac arrest B. Accidental knife wound C. Drug overdose D. Attempted suicide In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor: Select one: A. is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself. B. possesses a valid driver's license. C. is mentally competent and able to refuse. D. has a poor relationship with his or her parents. When caring for a 65-year-old male with respiratory distress, you place him in a comfortable position but do not apply oxygen. The patient's condition continues to deteriorate and he develops cardiac arrest and dies at the hospital. This scenario is an example of: Select one: A. negligence. B. assault. C. battery. D. abandonment. As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of: Select one: A. a paramedic supervisor. B. another EMT. C. the general public. D. the medical director. Information included in a radio report to the receiving hospital should include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. your perception of the severity of the problem. B. a preliminary diagnosis of the patient's problem. C. a brief summary of the care you provided. D. a brief history of the patient's current problem. Immediately after being dispatched to a residence for an elderly patient with diabetic complications, you should: Select one: A. ask the dispatcher if the patient is conscious or unconscious. B. request that law enforcement secure the scene before you arrive. C. confirm with dispatch that you received the call information. D. ask the dispatcher to obtain a medical history from the caller. A patient's refusal of EMS treatment and/or transport must be: Select one: A. authorized by a judge. B. witnessed by a notary. C. reported to the police. D. an informed refusal. You are caring for a 52-year-old man who complains of chest discomfort. The patient is a retired paramedic and is very anxious because he thinks he is having a heart attack. Which of the following statements would be appropriate? Select one: A. "This is nothing to worry about. Please try to stay calm. The physician at the hospital will probably not find any signs of a heart problem." B. "I notice that you are a retired paramedic, so I'm sure you will understand all of the things that we will be doing to you." C. "It is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow." D. "We need to take you to the ED stat. We will give you ASA and NTG en route and then reassess your vitals. Do you have any questions?" Which of the following is NOT a function of the Federal Communications Commission (FCC)? Select one: A. Monitoring all radio traffic and conducting field spot checks B. Licensing base stations and assigning appropriate radio call signs C. Allocating specific radio frequencies for use by EMS providers D. Maintaining communications equipment on the ambulance The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT: Select one: A. notifies the admitting clerk of the patient's arrival at the hospital. B. informs dispatch of the patient's arrival at the emergency department. C. gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse. D. gives a radio report to the receiving medical facility. Which type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies? Select one: A. Scanner B. Duplex station C. Simplex station D. Mobile repeater After receiving online orders from medical control to perform a patient care intervention, you should: Select one: A. repeat the order to medical control word for word. B. perform the intervention as ordered. C. confirm the order in your own words. D. ask the physician to repeat the order. During the alert and dispatch phase of EMS communications, the dispatcher's responsibilities include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. screening and assigning a priority to each call based on local protocols. B. selecting and notifying the EMS response units and personnel. C. coordinating responding EMS units with other public safety personnel. D. discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives. Which of the following has the weakest transmission signal and, as a result, is LEAST likely to be heard by the party being called? Select one: A. Hand-held portable radio B. Multiplex base station C. Mobile repeater station D. Land-base repeater station The hepatitis B vaccine program, a component of the infection control plan, addresses all of the following issues, EXCEPT: Select one: A. record keeping and tracking. B. family history of hepatitis. C. postvaccine antibody titers. D. vaccine safety and efficacy. When treating a patient who is trapped in a vehicle and covered with broken glass, it is BEST to wear: Select one: A. puncture-proof leather gloves over your latex gloves. B. thick firefighter gloves over two pairs of latex gloves. C. firefighter gloves only, to preserve manual dexterity. D. latex gloves with thick leather gloves underneath. It is especially important for EMS personnel to develop non-adversarial relationships with their coworkers because they: Select one: A. depend on one another for their safety. B. must work together every third day. C. may have to bunk in the same room. D. are highly prone to stress and burnout. The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the health care setting can usually be traced to: Select one: A. lack of proper immunizations. B. excessive blood splashing or splattering. C. noncompliance with standard precautions. D. careless handling of sharps. Patients who become dependent upon EMS personnel or other health care providers often feel: Select one: A. shamed. B. hopeful. C. superior. D. relieved. When a patient is dying, he or she may experience regression. This is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. behavior consistent with an earlier developmental stage. B. anger projected toward the EMT or other providers. C. fear of being completely dependent upon other people. D. a decreased ability to exercise age-appropriate judgment. Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they: Select one: A. offer little or no side protection. B. do not have shatterproof lenses. C. are not secured with a strap. D. have large, rounded lenses. If you use a waterless hand washing substitute in the field, it is important to: Select one: A. wait at least 5 minutes before touching another patient. B. immediately dry your hands with a paper towel. C. wash your hands with soap and water at the hospital. D. avoid donning another pair of gloves for at least 10 minutes. You are summoned to a convalescent center for an 88-year-old female with an altered mental status. A staff nurse advises you that the patient has terminal cancer and her physician stated that she would probably die within the next few hours; a valid do not resuscitate (DNR) order is presented to you. When caring for this patient, you should: Select one: A. provide no interventions and transport to the hospital. B. begin chest compressions if she experiences cardiac arrest. C. make her comfortable and provide emotional support. D. depart the scene and allow her to die with dignity. Which type of stress reaction occurs when an EMT is exposed to many insignificant stressors over a period of several months or years? Select one: A. Critical incident stress reaction B. Post-traumatic stress reaction C. Cumulative stress reaction D. Acute stress reaction Worn-out blood cells, foreign substances, and bacteria are filtered from the blood by the: Select one: A. pancreas. B. kidney. C. spleen. D. liver. What is the function of platelets? Select one: A. Initial formation of a blood clot B. Defense against invading organisms C. Transport of cellular waste materials D. Transport of oxygen and nutrients As the bronchus divides into smaller bronchioles, the terminal ends of these smaller passages form the: Select one: A. alveoli. B. capillaries. C. bronchi. D. pleura. The axial skeleton is composed of the: Select one: A. bones that constitute the pelvic girdle. B. skull, face, thorax, and vertebral column. C. arms, legs, and pelvis. D. lower part of the torso and the legs. The bones of the forearm are called the: Select one: A. humerus and ulna. B. radius and humerus. C. radius and ulna. D. tibia and radius. Which layer of the skin is composed of fatty tissue and serves as an insulator for the body? Select one: A. Subcutaneous B. Sebaceous C. Dermal D. Epidermis The descending aorta branches into the: Select one: A. internal carotid arteries. B. external carotid arteries. C. deep femoral arteries. D. common iliac arteries. The circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' current needs is called: Select one: A. metabolism. B. cardiac output. C. perfusion. D. respiration. The vocal cords are located in the: Select one: A. larynx. B. nasopharynx. C. oropharynx. D. pharynx. The largest portion of the brain is the ___________, which is commonly referred to as the "gray matter." Select one: A. brain stem B. diencephalon C. cerebellum D. cerebrum The primary function of the right atrium is to: Select one: A. receive blood from the pulmonary veins. B. receive blood from the vena cava. C. pump blood to the pulmonary artery. D. pump blood to the lungs for reoxygenation. Contraction of the right ventricle causes: Select one: A. closure of the mitral and aortic valves. B. a return of blood from the pulmonary veins. C. ejection of blood into the systemic circulation. D. blood to flow into the pulmonary circulation. Hemoglobin is a molecule that attaches to ___________ and carries oxygen. Select one: A. erythrocytes B. monocytes C. thrombocytes D. leukocytes The pelvic bones are formed by the fusion of the: Select one: A. ilium, pubis, and sacrum. B. ilium, ischium, and pubis. C. sacrum and ischium. D. pubis and acetabulum. ___________ pressure is the pressure exerted by a liquid that occurs when blood moves through an artery at relatively high pressures. Select one: A. Hydrostatic B. Diffusion C. Osmotic D. Oncotic The artery that can be palpated on the anterior surface of the foot is the: Select one: A. posterior tibial. B. dorsalis pedis. C. anterior tibial. D. ventral pedis. The diaphragm is unique because it: Select one: A. does not have striations like skeletal muscle. B. does not receive impulses from the brain. C. is the exclusive muscle of breathing. D. is both a voluntary and an involuntary muscle. The amount of air that remains in the lungs simply to keep them open is called the: Select one: A. inspiratory reserve volume. B. tidal volume. C. residual volume. D. expiratory reserve volume. The exchange of oxygen and nutrients for waste products of metabolism occurs at the cellular level in the: Select one: A. venules. B. arteries. C. arterioles. D. capillaries. At rest, the normal adult heart rate should not exceed: Select one: A. 80 beats/min. B. 100 beats/min. C. 70 beats/min. D. 90 beats/min. Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing in an adult? Select one: A. Respirations of 20 breaths/min and bilateral chest movement B. Respirations of 30 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume C. Cool, clammy skin and retractions above the clavicles D. Use of the accessory muscles in the neck and cyanosis Which part of the central nervous system is responsible for coordinating bodily movements such as writing or sewing? Select one: A. Cerebellum B. Hypothalamus C. Brain stem D. Cerebrum Breathing occurs as the result of a(n): Select one: A. increase in oxygen, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. B. increase in carbon dioxide, which decreases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. C. decrease in oxygen, which increases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. D. decrease in carbon dioxide, which increases the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. Which of the following are central pulses? Select one: A. Brachial and radial B. Femoral and carotid C. Temporal and pedal D. Popliteal and ulnar Cardiac output (CO) is affected by: Select one: A. blood pressure. B. stroke volume and heart rate. C. heart rate only. D. stroke volume only. The ___________ portion of the spinal column is joined to the iliac bones of the pelvis. Select one: A. thoracic B. lumbar C. coccyx D. sacrum The distal aspect of the tibia forms the: Select one: A. medial malleolus. B. Achilles tendon. C. lateral condyle. D. lateral malleolus. Signs of adequate breathing in the adult include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. a reduction in tidal volume. B. rhythmic inhalation and exhalation. C. bilaterally clear breath sounds. D. respirations of 18 breaths/min. The average adult has approximately ___________ of blood in his or her vascular system. Select one: A. 4 L B. 3 L C. 6 L D. 5 L The bones that constitute the fingers and toes are called: Select one: A. carpals. B. phalanges. C. metatarsals D. metacarpals. Which of the following glands regulates the function of all other endocrine glands in the body? Select one: A. Parathyroid B. Thyroid C. Pituitary D. Adrenal Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is typically unique to infants and children? Select one: A. Irregular breathing pattern B. Seesaw respirations C. Unequal chest expansion D. Unequal breath sounds The femoral head forms a ball-and-socket joint with the: Select one: A. femoral condyle. B. ilium. C. ischium. D. acetabulum. In an otherwise healthy adult, blood loss would cause: Select one: A. vascular constriction and bradycardia. B. vascular dilation and tachycardia. C. vascular dilation and bradycardia. D. vascular constriction and tachycardia. The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the: Select one: A. superior venae cavae. B. pulmonary veins. C. inferior venae cavae. D. pulmonary arteries. Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system would result in: Select one: A. tachycardia. B. a slower heart rate. C. vasoconstriction. D. a strong pulse. Which of the following statements regarding plasma is correct? Select one: A. Plasma has no role in the body's blood-clotting mechanism. B. Most of the body's plasma is contained within the large veins. C. Approximately 45% of the blood is composed of plasma. D. Plasma transports the blood cells and nutrients. The most distal four spinal vertebrae, which are fused together, form the: Select one: A. ischium. B. sacrum.