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NR293 Final Exam (Latest-2022, Version-2)/ NR 293 Final Exam / NR293 Pharmacology Final Exam / NR 293 Pharmacology Final / NR293 Pharm Final / NR 293 Pharm Final : Chamberlain College of Nursing |Verified and 100% Correct Q & A|

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NR293 Final Exam (Latest-2022, Version-1)/ NR 293 Final Exam / NR293 Pharmacology Final Exam / NR 293 Pharmacology Final / NR293 Pharm Final / NR 293 Pharm Final : Chamberlain College of Nursing |Verified and 100% Correct Q & A| NR 293 Pharmacology Final Exam/ NR293 Pharm Final (Latest): Chamberlain Chamberlain NR 293 Final Exam / Chamberlain NR293 Final Exam: Pharmacology for Nursing Practice 1. Name a dissociative drug that should be given with Ace to reduce rigidity and the eyes must be lubed. 2. Most commonly used inhalant anesthetic that is expelled through the lungs. 3. An anticholinergic pre-anesthetic drug that is used to slow down the heart rate and decreases salivation. 4. Known for its yellow color what is a phenothiazine tranquilizer that is also used as a pre-anesthetic? 5. Which sedative also goes by the name Rompum and causes 2nd degree heart block when used? 6. What is the anticonvulsant that is used for status epilepticus and an appetite stimulant? (Hint: Valium) 7. What is the anticonvulsant that could also cause liver problems when used? 8. Name the CNS stimulant that increase respiration. (Hint: Doxapram) 9. This drug reverses Xylazine and Amitraz. 10. This drug should be in an emergency kit in case the patient's heart has stopped or the patient undergoes anaphylactic shock. 11. Used for supraventricular fibrillation also known as the number one local anesthetic. 12. This drug is used to increase the contraction of the heart. 13. Name two ace-inhibitor drugs that lowers the blood pressure and dilates the blood vessels. 14. Which ace-inhibitor drug is the better choice when dealing with an animal that has kidney problems? 15. This drug is also used as a diuretic, it is used when an animal has Congestive heart failure. (Hint: Lasix) 16. When this drug is used in horses it relaxes the muscles, in dogs it can be used as an expectorant. 17. This drug is used when an animal has allergies or anxiety (behavior). (hint Generic name) 18. Helps to dilate the bronchial and also increases the heart rate, but it causes anxious activity in an animal. 19. This drug can be used as a pre-anesthetic but it is also used to block the cough reflexes when the dog has a dry cough. (Hint: Bordetella tracheobronchitis) 20. What is the drug that is used as a mucolytic but is also the antidote for tylenol toxicity? 21. This drug is initially used for urinary incontinence but it can also be used as a decongestant. 22. What is the drug that relieves vomiting and diarrhea and but it decreases the absorption of other drugs? 23. This drugs forms into a sticky paste and also binds with proteins. 24. An antiemetic that helps by speeding up gastric emptying. 25. This drug is a potent emetic 26. This drug is used to decrease HCL production also know as Tagamet 27. Used as a stool softener 28. Helps to decrease the urge to vomit also known as Cerenia 29. When an animal has diarrhea this is the number one drug to use, it is also efficient against Giardia. 30. When animals have a long estrus this drug is used to terminate the estrus. also know as Cystorelin 31. This hormone is used to maintain a pregnancy 32. It is best that pregnant women do not handle this drug, it can cause the corpus luteum to lyse. 33. Will stop an dog and cat from cycling, but also increases the risk of the animal to get a pyometra. Also known as Ovaban 34. Could cause bone marrow suppression and urinary incontinence but this drug is used to synch the estrus of animals. 35. This drug is the loop diuretic, which also is used with Congestive heart failure. 36. Which osmotic diuretic can be used to decrease cranial pressure caused by glaucoma and us usually given IV? 37. What cholinergic drug promotes the contraction of the bladder for an animal that has an Atonic bladder? 38. This drug treats diabetes insipidus 39. What is the drug that is used to stop bacteria growth and infections when an animal has a stone? This drug can cause the urine to become acidic. 40. This drug strengthens the urinary sphincter to stop a dog from dribbling urine. 41. What is the main functioning unit of the Kidney? 42. Usually used for systematic fungal infections such as Blasto and Histo given Iv but can be nephrotoxic. 43. What drug is used orally for antifungal but is hepatotoxic? 44. This oil or microil is antifungal and enhances absorption. 45. This drug is not absorbed well orally so must be used topically it is an antifungal drug. 46. This disinfectant kills Gram positive and Gram Negative viruses 47. Examples of this disinfectant are Bleach and Iodine. It gets gram positive and gram negative bacteria, fungi and viruses 48. What antiparasitic drug gets whips, rounds, hooks, and some tape worms? 49. Used to kill parasites, sarcoptic mange and ear mites 50. This antiparasitic drug mimics acetylcholine. It gets rounds and hook 51. Gets tapes 52. What is the anti parasitic drug that kills adult heartworms? 53. What is the antiparasitic that kills coccidia? 54. What anti-inflammatory drug is used for colic in horses and also causes some G.I problems? (Hint: Flunixin) 55. Taper animals off of this steroid in order to prevent addisons 56. This drug is used as a vehicle used to transport other drugs, wear gloves when using it. 57. Aspirin , Carprofen, Duramax, Manitor 58. A topical glucocorticoid 59. This is used to stop bleeding when an animals toe nail is cut too short. (caustic) 60. Topical Antifungal 61. Drains the fluid out of the tissue also known as Magna paste 62. This is a drying agent, astringent 63. What drug is used in glaucoma treatment? This drug miotic causes the eye to constrict 64. This is a dye used to check for corneal abrasions 65. Topical anesthetic for the eye 66. A mydriatic drug that dilates the pupil for eye exams 67. Used in glaucoma treatments, decreases aqueous humor 68. This is used to treat KCS and immune-mediated diseases 69. An antitumor antibiotic 70. Microorganisms lose virulence through attenuation but still provide immunity 71. Made from microbes that have been chemically killed 72. Made from live microorganisms may be fully virulent 73. Contains antibodies obtained from animals short lived protection 74. More than one antigen is present, less injections are required 75. Cidal, Beta lactam ring, side effects G.I and allergic reactions kills gram positive bacteria 76. Cidal, Kills gram positive and some gram negative. Nephrotoxic and ototoxic. Clindamycin and Gentamicin 77. Static, Don't give with milk, antacids, and iron. Broad spectrum treats blood parasites. 78. Cidal, kills gram positive and negative bacteria, don't use in growing animals (Baytril or Cipro) 79. This drug is similar to penicillin and has multiple generations given parenterally 80. Static, Broad spectrum drug, may cause KCS. SOme anti protozoal activity. 81. This is a muscle relaxant, it is spasmolytic, Used for animals with back problems 82. Treats muscle contractions, Paralytic agent. 83. Used for rumen atony is cows. 84. White, Given IV, Induction drug

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1

, a) Seizures
b) Tachypnea
c) Constipation
i) Mydriatic eye drops can cause systemic anticholinergic effects such as constipation, dry mouth,
photophobia, and tachycardia.
d) Hypothermia



5) A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving IV furosemide. The nurse should monitor the client for which
of the following electrolyte imbalances?
a) Hypernatremia
i) Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client who is receiving IV furosemide for hyponatremia.
b) Hyperuricemia
i) Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client who is receiving IV furosemide for hyperuricemia. The nurse should
instruct the client to notify the provider for any tenderness or swelling of the joints.
c) Hypercalcemia
i) Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client who is receiving IV furosemide for hypocalcemia.
d) Hyperchloremia
i) Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client who is receiving IV furosemide for hypochloremia.



6) A nurse is talking to a client who is taking a calcium supplement for osteoporosis. The client tells the nurse she is
experiencing flank pain. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse suspect?
a) Renal stones



7) A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed warfarin therapy for an artificial heart valve. Which of the following
laboratory values should the nurse monitor for a therapeutic effect of warfarin?
a) Hemoglobin
b) Prothrombin time (PT)
i) Rationale: This test is used to monitor warfarin therapy. For a client receiving full anticoagulant
therapy,should typically be approximately two to three times the normal value, depending on the
indication for therapeutic anticoagulation.
c) Bleeding time
d) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)



8) A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of lactulose to a client who has cirrhosis. The client states, "I don't need this
medication. I am not constipated." The nurse should explain that in clients who have cirrhosis, lactulose is used to
decrease levels of which of the following components in the bloodstream?
a) Glucose
b) Ammonia
i) Rationale: Lactulose, a disaccharide, is a sugar that works as an osmotic diuretic. It prevents
absorption of ammonia in the colon. Accumulation of ammonia in the bloodstream, which occurs in
pathologic conditions of the liver, such as cirrhosis, may affect the central nervous system, causing
hepatic encephalopathy or coma.
c) Potassium
d) Bicarbonate

, 9) A nurse is educating a group of clients about the contraindications of warfarin therapy. Which of the following
statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
a) "Clients who have glaucoma should not take warfarin."
b) "Clients who have rheumatoid arthritis should not take warfarin."
c) "Clients who are pregnant should not take warfarin."
i) Rationale: Warfarin therapy is contraindicated in the pregnant client because it crosses the placenta
and places the fetus at risk for bleeding.
d) "Clients who have hyperthyroidism should not take warfarin."
10) A nurse is teaching a client who takes warfarin daily. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further
teaching?
a) "I have started taking ginger root to treat my joint stiffness."
i) Rationale: Ginger root can interfere with the blood clotting effect of warfarin and place the client at risk for
bleeding. This statement indicates the client needs further teaching.
b) "I take this medication at the same time each day."
i) Rationale: The client should take warfarin at the same time each day to maintain a stable blood level.
c) "I eat a green salad every night with dinner."
i) Rationale: Green leafy vegetables are a good source of vitamin K, which can interfere with the clotting effects of
warfarin. Clients who are taking warfarin do not need to restrict dietary vitamin K intake but rather should maintain a
consistent intake of vitamin K in order to control the therapeutic effect of the medication.
d) "I had my INR checked three weeks ago.
i) " Rationale: Clients who have been taking warfarin for more than 3 months should have their INR level checked every
2 to 4 weeks.



11) A patient is starting warfarin (Coumadin) therapy as part of treatment for atrial fibrillation. The nurse will
follow which principles of warfarin therapy? (Select all that apply.)
a) Teach proper subcutaneous administration
b) Administer the oral dose at the same time every day
c) Assess carefully for excessive bruising or unusual bleeding
d) Monitor laboratory results for a target INR of 2 to 3
e) Monitor laboratory results for a therapeutic aPTT value of 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value



12) Atorvastatin can elevate LFT
a) Baseline total cholesterol, LDL and HDL level, triglycerides, and liver and renal function test obtained and then
monitored periodically throughout treatment
13) The nurse teaches a client who is recovering from acute kidney disease to avoid which type of medication?
a) NSAIDS
i) NSAIDs may be nephrotoxic to a client with acute kidney disease, and should be avoided.
ACE inhibitors are used for treatment of hypertension and to protect the kidneys, especially
in the diabetic client, from progression of kidney disease. Opiates may be used by clients
with kidney disease if severe pain is present; however, excretion may be delayed. Calcium
channel blockers can improve the glomerular filtration rate and blood flow within the kidney.
b) ACE inhibitors
c) Opiates
d) Calcium channel blockers
14) Which of the following are adverse reactions related to the use of CELECOXIB? Select all that apply
a) Rhinitis
b) Neutropenia
c) Oliguria
d) Stomatitis

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