Examination Questions and Answers in Basic Anatomy and Physiology

Examination Questions and Answers inology 2400 Multiple Choice Questions Second Examination Questions and Answers in Basic Anatomy and Physiology 2400 Multiple Choice Questions 2nd Edition Martin Caon TABLE OF CONTENT 1 Organisation of the Body . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1 2 Cells and Tissues . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11 2.1 Cells and Tissues . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11 2.2 Cell Cycle (Mitosis and Protein Synthesis) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 34 3 Measurement, Errors, Data and Unit Conversion . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 41 4 Chemistry for Physiology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 53 4.1 Atoms and Molecules . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 53 4.2 Solutions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 66 4.3 Diffusion and Osmosis. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 76 4.4 Tonicity, Moles and Osmoles. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 85 4.5 Acids, Bases and Buffers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 97 4.6 Organic Chemistry and Macromolecules. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 114 5 Integument. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 125 6 Homeostasis . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 139 7 Skeleton and Joints . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 151 8 Muscles. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 173 9 Gastrointestinal System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 195 10 Endocrine System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 227 11 Renal System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 251 12 Cardiovascular System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 279 12.1 Blood . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 279 12.2 Heart. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 295 12.3 Blood Vessels . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 309 12.4 Pressure: The Physics of Pressure . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 323 12.5 Pressure Applied to the Cardiovascular System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 336 12.6 Blood Pressure and Its Control . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 349 xv xvi Contents 13 Respiratory System 369 13.1 Anatomy and Physiology 369 13.2 Pressure Applied to the Respiratory System 393 14 Nervous System 405 14.1 Cells and Action Potential 405 14.2 Brain and Spinal Cord Anatomy 420 14.3 Autonomic Nervous System, Neurotransmitters, and Reflexes 440 14.4 Special Senses (Eye and Ear) 454 14.4.1 Eye 454 14.4.2 Ear 465 15 Reproductive System 475 16 Waves, Light Waves, Sound Waves and Ultrasound (The Physics of) 493 16.1 Waves 493 16.2 Light Waves 498 16.3 Sound 502 16.4 Ultrasound 506 17 Ionising Radiation 511 17.1 Medical Imaging with X-Radiation 511 17.2 Radioactivity, Radiotherapy, Nuclear Medicine and Radiation Safety 519 18 Electricity 539 19 Biomechanics 551 20 Body Temperature, Energy and Heat Loss 567 21 Essay Topics for a Written Assignment Assessment in Anatomy and Physiology 585 Chapter 1 Organisation of the Body 1. Which of the listed terms is described by: “All the chemical processes that take place in the organelles and cytoplasm the cells of the body”? A. Metabolism B. Cellular respiration 2 1 Organisation of the Body C. Homeostasis D. Physiology Answer is A: The quoted statement is a definition of metabolism. 2. Which major organ lies deep to the right hypochondriac region? A. The stomach B. The spleen C. The liver D. The duodenum Answer is C: Hypochondriac = below the rib cartilage; liver is located mostly on the right side. 3. Which plane of the body divides it into dorsal and ventral regions? A. Transverse B. Axial C. Coronal D. Sagittal Answer is C: Dorsal and ventral = front and back – a coronal section so divides the body into these sections. 4. To which of the following does the “tissue level” of structural organisation refer? A. Atoms, ions, molecules and electrolytes B. Mitochondria, ribosomes, nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum C. Nephron, alveolus, villus, lobule D. Muscle, nervous, connective, epithelial Answer is D: The listed structures are the four major tissue types. 5. The directional term “superior” in anatomy means which of the following? A. Cephalic B. Ventral C. Closer to the top of the head D. Closer to the skin surface Answer is C: Cephalic refers to the head region, while superior refers to being closer to the head than is the other anatomical structure in question. 6. Which of the following is the best definition of physiology? A. The microscopic study of tissues and cells B. The study of how the body works C. All the chemical processes that take place in the organelles of the body’s cells D. The body’s automatic tendency to maintain a relatively constant internal environment Answer is B: Physiology is indeed the study of how the (healthy) body functions. 1 Organisation of the Body 3 7. The “anatomical position” could be described as which of the following? A. Lying down prone B. Lying down supine C. Standing displaying the ventral surface of the body D. Standing with arms and legs abducted Answer is C: This is the best answer. Standing is required, as is having the arms hanging parallel to the sides, with palms facing forward. 8. Which choice best describes the location of the majority of the musculoskeletal system? A. It is in the dorsal cavity B. It is in the ventral cavity C. It is in the abdominopelvic cavity D. It is not located in a body cavity Answer is D: The musculoskeletal system is located in the arms and legs, and sur- rounding, but outside of the abdominopelvic, the thoracic and the dorsal cavities. 9. Which of the following is/are the contents of the ventral cavity? A. Heart and lungs B. Brain and spinal cord C. Viscera D. Gut, kidneys, liver, pancreas, spleen, bladder, internal reproductive organs Answer is C: This is the best answer. It is a collective term for all organs in the tho- racic and abdominopelvic cavities. 10. Which of the stated relationships is correct? A. The heart is inferior to the clavicle B. The shoulder is distal to the carpals C. The phalanges are proximal to the metacarpals D. The eye is medial to the eyebrows Answer is A: The heart is indeed below (inferior) to the clavicle. All other choices are wrong. 11. Which of the following is/are the contents of the dorsal body cavity? A. Heart and lungs B. Brain and spinal cord C. Viscera D. Gut, kidneys, liver, pancreas, spleen, bladder, internal reproductive organs Answer is B: Dorsal refers to the back, the cavity enclosed by the skull and vertebrae. 4 1 Organisation of the Body 12. Which of the stated relationships is correct? A. The heart is superior to the large intestine B. The shoulder is distal to the metacarpals C. The phalanges are proximal to the carpals D. The eye is medial to the nose Answer is A: The heart is indeed above (superior) to the intestine. All other answers are wrong. 13. What is the study of how body parts function called? A. Histology B. Physiology C. Homeostasis D. Metabolism Answer is B: Physiology refers to function. 14. Which of the following correctly describes the two named body parts? A. The elbow is proximal to the shoulder B. The phalanges are distal to the carpals C. The ribs are proximal to the sternum D. The elbow is distal to the knee Answer is B: Phalanges (finger bones) are indeed further from the trunk along the arm, than are the carpals (wrist bones). 15. Which one of the following statements is correct? A. The diaphragm separates the brain and spinal cord. B. The ventral cavity contains the male and female reproductive system. C. The abdominopelvic cavity contains the spinal cord. D. The dorsal cavity contains the brain and spinal cord. Answer is D: Dorsal means back and that is the cavity with the spinal cord and brain. B is incorrect as the genitalia are outside the ventral cavity. 16. Complete the sentence correctly: “Cervical vertebrae are…… A. Superior to the rib cage B. Inferior to the thoracic vertebrae C. Located between the thoracic and sacral vertebrae D. Fused into a single bone called the sacrum Answer is A: Cervix refers to “neck”. The cervical vertebrae are in the neck; hence they are above (superior) to the rib cage. 17. The dorsal body cavity contains which of the following organs? A. The brain B. The brain and spinal cord C. The brain, spinal cord and heart 1 Organisation of the Body 5 D. The brain, spinal cord, heart and kidneys Answer is B: Dorsal refers to the back and is opposite to ventral. Only the brain and spinal cord occupy the dorsal cavity. All other answers are incorrect. 18. What does the process known as anabolism refer to? A. The use of energy for producing chemical substances B. The breaking down phase of metabolism C. All the chemical process that take place in the organelles of the cells D. The supply of nutrients to the body’s cells Answer is A: Anabolism refers to the process of constructing/building molecules (think anabolic steroids). B refers to catabolism. C is metabolism. 19. To what does the term “hypochondriac” refer? A. A condition of having too few chondria B. The region of abdomen inferior to the ribs C. A person who often complains of an ailment D. Having insufficient cartilage in the knees Answer is B: In this case “hypo-” means below, while “chondro” refers to the carti- lage joining the ribs to the sternum (the costal cartilages). The regions of the abdo- men immediately inferior to these rib cartilages (on the left and right sides of the body) are what is being referred to. 20. If a medical image displays internal anatomy in the midsagittal section, which of the following describes the section? A. A vertical section through the nose and umbilicus that divides the body into right and left halves B. A cross-section through the midriff at about the level of the liver C. A cross-section through the upper chest at about the level of the shoulders D. A vertical section through the midpoint of the clavicle and through either the right or left thigh Answer is A: A sagittal section divides the body into left and right portions. A mid- sagittal section means that the dividing line is in the vertical midline of the body so that the halves are equal. 21. Which of the following best describes the “anatomical position”? A. Standing vertically, arms held horizontally, legs apart so that the tips of the head, hands and feet lie on an imaginary circle, drawn around the body B. Standing “to attention”, with hands held so that thumbs are ventral while the fifth digit is dorsal C. Standing “at ease” with hands clasped behind your back while adjacent and dorsal to the sacrum D. Standing vertically, arms parallel and lateral to the ribs with hands inferior to the elbows and supinated 6 1 Organisation of the Body Answer is D: The anatomical position is achieved when standing with feet comfort- ably apart while displaying the ventral surface of the head, body and forearms to the same direction (forwards). 22. Which term describes the location of the adrenal glands with reference to the kidneys? A. Proximal B. Distal C. Superior D. Inferior Answer is C: The adrenal glands are on the cephalic side of the kidneys. Being closer to the head, they are termed “superior to the kidneys”. 23. Which of the following terms is NOT used to identify a region of the abdomen? A. Left hypochondriac B. Hypogastric C. Epigastric D. Right sacral Answer is D: Right sacral is not a region on the anterior surface of the abdomen. 24. What structure separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity? A. The mediastinum B. The diaphragm C. The peritoneum D. The pylorus Answer is B: The muscular diaphragm physically separates these two ventral cavities. 25. When the body is standing in the “anatomical position”, which of the following is true? A. The radius is lateral to the ulna. B. The radius is medial to the ulna. C. The radius is proximal to the ulna. D. The radius is distal to the ulna. Answer is A: In the anatomical position, the palms are displayed ventrally. The radius is further from the body’s midline than is the ulna; hence, it is lateral to the ulna. 26. What is the movement called when the arms are moved from the anatomical position by sweeping them through 90° in the coronal plane, so that they are held horizontally (parallel to the ground)? 1 Organisation of the Body 7 A. Pronation B. Circumduction C. Abduction D. Rotation Answer is C: Moving the straight arms away from the body in this fashion is called abduction. 27. Which bones are located distal to the elbow and proximal to the wrist? A. The carpals B. The radius and ulna C. The tarsals D. The humerus Answer is B: Distal to the elbow means further along the arm towards the hand – this eliminates the humerus. Proximal to the wrist means closer to the body than the wrist – this eliminates the carpals. The tarsals are in the ankle. 28. What is the collective term used for contents of the body’s ventral cavity? A. The omentum B. The peritoneum C. The internal organs D. The viscera Answer is D: The peritoneum is the membrane that surrounds the abdominal cavity and the omentum is a portion of that. The internal organs are close but also include the brain which is not in the ventral cavity. 29. What is meant by the term “retroperitoneal”? A. On the dorsal side of the lungs B. In the space between the spinal cord and the bodies of the vertebrae C. Within the body wall but not enclosed by the peritoneum D. It is a small bone of the facial skeleton Answer is D: Retroperitoneal refers to organs inferior to the diaphragm but not enclosed by the peritoneum. For example, the kidneys, pancreas, rectum and part of the duodenum. 30. How does a coronal section divide the body? A. Into many transverse slices B. Into a ventral part and a dorsal part C. Into a left and right section D. Into superior and inferior portions Answer is B: An imaginary cut that divides the body into a front half (or section) and back half is termed coronal. Choice C is sagittal, while choice D is a transverse section. 8 1 Organisation of the Body 31. What structure separates the abdominal and pelvic cavities? A. There is no separating structure. B. The diaphragm. C. The peritoneum. D. The dura mater. Answer is A: The pelvic cavity is not physically separated from the abdominal cav- ity. For example, parts of the small intestine are located in both “cavities”. 32. In which cavity(ies) does the digestive system lie? A. The abdominal cavity B. The abdominal and pelvic cavities C. The thoracic, abdominal and pelvic cavities D. The dorsal, thoracic, abdominal and pelvic cavities Answer is C: The oesophagus is within the thoracic cavity, while the remainder is in the abdominopelvic cavity. 33. Imagine an image of a transverse section of the upper arm. What tissues may be identified there located from the most superficial to the deepest? A. Skin, subcutaneous fat, muscle, hypodermis, bone B. Epidermis, dermis, hypodermis, muscle, bone C. Integument, muscle, superficial fascia, bone, marrow D. Hypodermis, subcutaneous fat, muscle, marrow, bone Answer is B: Choice A is incorrect as hypodermis is more superficial than muscle. Choice C is wrong again because superficial fascia (which is a synonym for hypo- dermis) is more superficial than muscle. Choice D is wrong as marrow lies within bone, and also hypodermis and subcutaneous fat are almost synonyms. 34. By what anatomical term is the head region known? A. Plantar B. Cephalic C. Hypochondriac D. Axillary Answer is B: The cephalus is the head; the plantar region is the base of the foot; the hypochondriac region is inferior and deep to the rib cartilages of ribs 7–10; the axil- lary region is the “armpit”. 35. Which organ would be found in the left hypochondriac region? A. The appendix B. The urinary bladder C. The liver D. The stomach 1 Organisation of the Body 9 Answer is D: Left hypochondriac region is deep to the cartilages of the lower ribs on our left-hand side. The stomach is closest to this region. 36. To which body region does “popliteal” refer? A. The region around each eye B. The region anterior to the elbow, between arm and forearm C. The region dorsal to the knee D. The region of the anterior crease between thigh and abdomen Answer is C: Here the popliteal artery and popliteus tendon may be located. Choice A refers to orbital; B refers to antecubital; D refers to inguinal. 37. Which region of the body is known as the acromial region? A. The elbow region B. The heel region C. The medial ankle region D. The shoulder region Answer is D: The superior part of the shoulder at the distal end of the clavicle is known as acromial. Here the acromion of the scapula articulates with the clavicle at the “ac” or acromioclavicular joint. Choice A is the olecranal region; B the calca- neal; C (the medial malleolus) is not usually ascribed a region name. 38. What are the terms cortex and medulla used to describe? A. The cortex is the outer part of an organ or bone, while the medulla is the inner part. B. The cortex is the inner part of an organ or bone, while the medulla is the outer part. C. The cortex is the deeper part of an organ or bone, while the medulla is the more superficial part. D. The medulla refers to the fibrous capsule around an organ, while the cortex is the tissue of an organ. Answer is A: The cortex of the kidney, for example, is the deep, inner part, while the cortex is the more superficial, outer part. 39. What is meant by the term flexion (or to flex)? A. Flexion is where the angle between two long bones is decreased by muscle action. B. Flexion is an action performed to stretch (extend) a muscle. C. Flexion is where the angle between two long bones is increased by muscle action. D. Flexion is caused by the action of contracting a muscle. Answer is A: To flex an arm is to decrease the angle between the humerus and radius (by contracting the biceps brachii). Choice D is wrong as contracting the triceps brachii causes extension of the forearm. 10 1 Organisation of the Body 40. To what movement is the term “extension” applied? A. Extension is where the angle between two long bones is decreased by mus- cle action. B. Extension is an action performed to stretch (extend) a muscle. C. Extension is where the angle between two long bones is increased by mus- cle action. D. Extension occurs when an antagonistic muscle is allowed to contract. Answer is C: To extend a body part is to increase the angle between the moving bone and the stationary bone. For example, when the fingers of a clenched fist are allowed to straighten, the angle between the proximal phalanges and the metacar- pals increases. 41. What exists in the “potential space” between the visceral and parietal layers of a membrane? A. Serous fluid B. Nothing C. Air D. Synovial fluid Answer is A: Serous membranes have a deeper visceral layer and a more superficial parietal layer. Between them is a small amount of serous fluid to lubricate their movement past each other. 42. One of the images taken for mammography of the compressed breast is known as “cranio-caudal”. What direction is this? A. Compression from the medial and lateral sides. B. A left to right (sideways) view. C. The breast is flattened against the rib cage for imaging. D. When standing, the breast is compressed from above and below. Answer is D: From above (the cranial direction) and below (the caudal, or tail direction). 43. What part of the body is known as the popliteal region? A. The fold of the knee B. The fold of the elbow C. The area around the ears D. The medial sides of the ankles Answer is A: Behind the knee, opposite to the patella is the popliteal region. Here the popliteal pulse and popliteus tendon are found. Chapter 2 Cells and Tissues 2.1 Cells and Tissues Cells are composed of their cytoplasm, which includes the cytosol and organelles, the nucleus and the surrounding plasma membrane. You should know that the plasma membrane is a double layer of phospholipid molecules and that these mol- ecules have a hydrophilic end and a hydrophobic end. The plasma membrane con- tains proteins including the ATPase (the sodium-potassium pump) which moves sodium ions out of the cell while moving potassium ions into the cell. Other proteins act as receptors and as pores or gateways into the cell. You should know the names and function of some of the organelles within cells. For example, you should know that mitochondria produce ATP and that ribosomes synthesise proteins from amino acids. You will become familiar with the names of many cells. Often a word can be recognised as the name of a cell because it ends in “-cyte” or, if it is an immature cell, by ending in “-blast”. Four major types of tissue are identified in the body: epithelial, connective, muscle and neural tissues. Of course there are many subtypes within these categories. For example, epithelial tissue may be squamous, cuboidal, columnar or glandular. Muscle may be skeletal, smooth or cardiac. Connective tis- sue is quite varied, and you should be aware of the many different examples of tis- sue that are categorised as “connective”. For example, blood, bone, dermis, cartilage and tendon are all connective tissues. 1. Which structure within the cell produces ATP (adenosine triphosphate)? A. The mitochondria B. The nucleus C. Peripheral proteins D. The endoplasmic reticulum Answer is A: This is a basic function of mitochondria. All other answers are wrong. © Springer International Publishing AG, part of Springer Nature 2018 11 M. Caon, Examination Questions and Answers in Basic Anatomy and Physiology, 12 2 Cells and Tissues 2. Which of the following is NOT a component of the cell plasma membrane? A. Cholesterol B. Proteins C. Microfilaments D. Phospholipids Answer is C: Microfilaments occur inside the cell. 3. Which list below contains the four types of tissue? A. Extracellular fluid, skeletal tissue, glandular tissue, connective tissue B. Extracellular fluid, muscle tissue, glandular tissue, cartilaginous tissue C. Neural tissue, skeletal tissue, epithelial tissue, cartilaginous tissue D. Neural tissue, muscle tissue, epithelial tissue, connective tissue Answer is D: These are the four types. Extracellular fluid is not a tissue. Cartilage is a type of connective tissue. 4. Except for one, the following are types of cells. Which one is NOT a type of cell? A. Platelets B. Leucocytes C. Macrophages D. Osteoblasts Answer is A: Platelets are fragments of a cell (a megakaryocyte) bound by a membrane. 5. In which part of a cell does the process of making ATP from oxygen and glucose take place? A. Lysosomes B. Ribosomes C. Mitochondria D. Golgi apparatus Answer is C: ATP production is the function of mitochondria. 6. Which of the following is a function of membrane proteins? A. To process lipids and proteins for secretion through the plasma membrane B. To act as receptors for hormones C. To synthesise proteins from amino acids D. To act as a cytoskeleton to support and shape the cell Answer is B: One function of membrane proteins is to receive (amino acid-based) hormones that cannot pass through the plasma membrane. 7. What is the difference between simple squamous cells and simple columnar cells? 2.1 Cells and Tissues 13 A. Squamous cells are flattened, while columnar cells are taller than they are wide. B. Simple squamous cells are one layer thick, while simple columnar cells are several layers thick. C. Simple squamous cells are epithelial tissue, while simple columnar cells are connective tissue. D. Squamous cells are flattened, while columnar cells are cuboidal. Answer is A: The names of the cells contain a description of their shape: either flat or like columns. Simple refers to a single layer of cells. 8. Which of the following is NOT an example of a cell? A. Macrophages B. Lysosomes C. Plasmocytes D. Chondroblasts Answer is B: The suffix “-some” refers to an organelle within a cell. The other suf- fixes all indicate a type of cell. 9. Which cell organelles contain an acidic environment capable of digesting a wide variety of molecules? A. Lysosomes B. Ribosomes C. Centrosomes D. Golgi complex Answer is A: The prefix “lyso-” refers to the ability to dissolve or destroy molecules or cells. 10. Which form of transport through the plasma membrane requires the expendi- ture of energy by the cell? A. Facilitated diffusion B. Osmosis C. Active transport D. Diffusion Answer is C: The term “active” implies using energy (in the form of ATP) to move a molecule against its concentration gradient while the other processes are all passive. 11. Which of the tissue types below consists of a single layer of cells? A. Stratified squamous epithelial tissue B. Glandular epithelium C. Areolar connective tissue D. Simple columnar epithelial tissue 14 2 Cells and Tissues Answer is D: The word “simple” indicates a single layer of cells. Stratified means several layers (or strata) of cells. 12. One of the following is NOT a serous membrane. Which one? A. Pleura B. Peritoneum C. Mucosa D. Pericardium Answer is C: Mucosa is a mucous membrane (and secretes mucus). 13. Which of the following is NOT made predominantly from epithelial tissue? A. In the dermis B. In exocrine glands C. In endocrine glands D. In the endothelium of blood vessels Answer is A: The dermis contains connective tissue, nervous tissue and muscle as well as epithelial tissue. 14. What are tendons and ligaments composed of? A. Dense connective tissue B. Liquid connective tissue C. Muscular tissue D. Epithelial tissue Answer is A: Tendons and ligaments are dense CT. This is strong as there is a high proportion of fibres. 15. What is the composition of the intercellular matrix in connective tissue? A. Cells and fibres B. Serous and mucous membranes and lamina propria C. Protein fibres and ground substance D. Interstitial fluid Answer is C: “Intercellular” means between cells. So matrix is fibres and ground substance (but no cells). 16. Which statement about the plasma membrane is INCORRECT? A. It is selectively permeable. B. It is composed of two layers of glycoprotein molecules. C. It contains receptors for specific signalling molecules. D. The plasma membranes of adjacent cells are held together by desmosomes. Answer is B: The PM is indeed made of two layers, but they are phospholipid (not glycoprotein) molecules. 2.1 Cells and Tissues 15 17. Which of the following is NOT epithelial tissue? A. The epidermis B. Glandular tissue C. The internal lining of blood vessels D. The dermis Answer is D: The dermis contains some of all four types of tissue. 18. Which of the following is NOT a cell found in connective tissue? A. Adipocytes B. Chondroblasts C. Keratinocytes D. Osteoblasts Answer is C: Keratinocytes are in the epidermis which is epithelial tissue. The other cell types occur in fat, cartilage and bone. 19. What tissue has cells that are closely packed and that have one surface attached to a basement membrane and the other free to a space? A. Epithelial tissue B. Muscle tissue C. Connective tissue D. Nervous tissue Answer is A: This is a definition of epithelial tissue. 20. What is the name of the mechanism that ensures that there is a higher concen- tration of sodium ions in the extracellular fluid than in the intracellular fluid? A. Facilitated diffusion B. The sodium-potassium pump C. Secondary active transport D. Osmosis Answer is B: The “pump” (or ATPase) transports Na+ out and K+ into the cell. 21. What are lysosomes, centrosomes and ribosomes example of? A. Stem cells B. Organelles within a cell C. Sensory receptors in the dermis D. Exocrine glands Answer is B: The suffix “-some” refers to small body or organelle within a cell. 22. What does simple columnar epithelial tissue refer to? Tissue with: A. A single layer of cells longer than they are wide. B. A single layer of cells whose length, breadth and depth are about the same size. 16 2 Cells and Tissues C. Several layers of cells, all of the same type D. Several layers of cells but without a basement membrane Answer is A: Simple = one layer. Columnar means oblong or shaped like a column. 23. Which of the following is NOT an example of connective tissue? A. Blood B. Bone C. Tendon D. Epidermis Answer is D: The epidermis (on top of the dermis) is epithelial tissue. 24. What is the function of phospholipids in the plasma membrane? A. To maintain the intracellular fluid at a similar composition to that of the interstitial fluid B. To form channels to selectively allow passage of small molecules C. To act as receptors for signalling chemicals D. To present a barrier to the passage of water-soluble molecules Answer is D: Molecules that are soluble in water cannot pass through lipid (fat). So the phospholipids are a barrier. The functions described by B and C are performed by other molecules in the plasma membrane. 25. Which one of the following cell types is found in epithelial tissue? A. Plasma cells B. Leucocytes C. Keratinocytes D. Chondroblasts Answer is C: Keratinocytes produce keratin, the protein of the epidermis, which is epithelial tissue. 26. Which of the following is NOT part of the plasma membrane of a cell? A. Integral proteins B. Glycoproteins C. Plasma proteins D. Peripheral proteins Answer is C: As the name implies, plasma proteins are found in the blood plasma. Not to be confused with the plasma membrane. 27. A major role for mitochondria is to: A. Transcribe the information in DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) B. Produce ATP (adenosine triphosphate) C. Synthesise proteins from amino acids D. Use enzymes to lyse molecules 2.1 Cells and Tissues 17 Answer is B: ATP is only produced within the mitochondria. 28. Choose the tissue below that is one of the four primary types of body tissue. A. Epidermal tissue B. Epithelial tissue C. Interstitial tissue D. Osseous tissue Answer is B: Epithelial is a major tissue type (as is muscle, nervous and connective). 29. What are the primary types of tissue in the body? A. Muscle, nervous, connective and epithelial B. Muscle, nervous, connective, osseous and epithelial C. Muscle, nervous, connective, osseous, blood and epithelial D. Muscle, nervous, connective, glandular and epithelial Answer is A: There are four major types (not five or six). Osseous and blood are also connective, while glandular tissue is also epithelial. 30. What is the name of the membrane that surrounds the lungs? A. Visceral peritoneum B. Parietal peritoneum C. Visceral pleura D. Dura mater Answer is C: Pleura is around the lungs, while visceral refers to the layer of the pleura that is attached to the lung surface. 31. What is a role performed by mitochondria? A. Contain enzymes capable of digesting molecules B. Produce ATP C. Synthesise proteins D. Synthesise fatty acids, phospholipids and cholesterol Answer is B: Mitochondria produce ATP. The other tasks are performed by lyso- somes, ribosomes and endoplasmic reticulum, respectively. 32. Which of the following is NOT found in the plasma membrane? A. Proteins B. Cholesterol C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. Phospholipids Answer is C: Endoplasmic reticulum is an organelle and found within the cell. 18 2 Cells and Tissues 33. Which one of the following cell types is found in epithelial tissue? A. Mast cells B. Adipocytes C. Chondroblasts D. Keratinocytes Answer is D: These cells produce keratin, the protein of the stratum corneum. 34. Which of the following is NOT part of the plasma membrane of a cell? A. Phospholipid B. Glycoprotein C. Chromatin D. Cholesterol Answer is C: Chromatin makes up chromosomes. 35. A major role for mitochondria is to: A. Synthesise fatty acids, phospholipids and steroids B. Deliver lipids and proteins to plasma membrane for secretion C. Synthesise proteins from amino acids D. Produce ATP (adenosine triphosphate) Answer is D: Mitochondria produce ATP from glucose. 36. Choose the tissue below that is NOT one of the four primary types of body tissue. A. Connective tissue B. Muscular tissue C. Nervous tissue D. Osseous tissue Answer is D: Osseous tissue (or bone) is a connective tissue. 37. What is the purpose of mitochondria? A. To store the nucleolus and chromatin B. To produce adenosine triphosphate C. To support and shape the cell D. To produce enzymes to break down molecules Answer is B: Mitochondria are the site of ATP production. 38. The plasma membrane of a cell contains molecules that have a hydrophobic end and a hydrophilic end. What are they called? A. Phospholipids B. Cholesterol C. Integral proteins D. Glycoproteins 2.1 Cells and Tissues 19 Answer is A: The phosphate end is hydrophilic (water soluble), while the lipid end is hydrophobic (insoluble in water). 39. Adipocytes are found in which type of tissue? A. Muscle tissue B. Epithelial tissue C. Nervous tissue D. Connective tissue Answer is D: Adipocytes are found in fat (adipose tissue) which is a type of connec- tive tissue. 40. What is the role of mitochondria? To: A. Function in cell division B. Synthesise proteins C. Form part of the plasma membrane D. Synthesise fatty acids, phospholipids and steroids Answer is C: Mitochondria produce ATP. 41. Which one of the following cell types is found in epithelial tissue? A. Mast cells B. Adipocytes C. Chondroblasts D. Melanocytes Answer is D: Melanocytes produce melanin to protect the skin from ultraviolet radiation, and it results in tanning of the skin. 42. What is the difference between “loose” connective tissue (CT) and “dense” connective tissue? A. Fibres occupy most of the volume in dense CT. B. Dense CT includes cartilage, while loose CT does not. C. Loose CT has a good blood supply, while dense CT does not. D. Loose CT has no fibres (and dense CT does). Answer is A: The preponderance of fibres is what makes the CT “dense”. Cartilage is classified as supportive CT. 43. Facilitated diffusion refers to the process of: A. Movement along a concentration gradient assisted by protein carrier molecules B. Movement of ions and molecules along a concentration gradient C. Transport of molecules and ions against their concentration gradient D. Water movement through a semipermeable membrane 20 2 Cells and Tissues Answer is A: Facilitated refers to the role of the protein carriers. The other choices refer to diffusion, active transport and osmosis, respectively. 44. What do fibroblasts, chondroblasts, osteoblasts and haemocytoblasts have in common? A. They are all types of white blood cell. B. They are all macrophages. C. They are all immature cells. D. They are all types of epithelial cell. Answer is C: The suffix “-blast” implies that these cells have not yet finished their differentiation. That is they are immature. 45. Which is NOT true of connective tissue (CT)? A. The cells are closely packed. B. The tissue contains protein fibres and ground substance. C. Types include loose CT, dense CT and liquid CT. D. CT contains white blood cells. Answer is A: Being close packed is a property of epithelial tissue. In CT the cells are widely spaced, being separated by the ground substance. 46. Active transport across the plasma membrane may be described by which statement? A. Active transport requires energy from ATP. B. Active transport is also known as endocytosis. C. Active transport moves molecules along their concentration gradient. D. Active transport is the movement of lipid-soluble molecules through the plasma membrane. Answer is A: This is the only correct answer. The others are not true. 47. Which of the following cell types denote an immature cell? A. Macrophages B. Monocytes C. Osteoblasts D. Ribosomes Answer is C: The suffix “-blast” indicates that the cell is immature. 48. Choose the membrane that is NOT a serous membrane. A. Pleura B. Peritoneum C. Pericardium D. Lamina propria 2.1 Cells and Tissues 21 Answer is D: The lamina propria is a “basement membrane” attached to epithelial tissue. The others are serous membranes. 49. Which organelle is the site of ATP production? A. Nucleus B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Mitochondria D. Golgi apparatus Answer is C: The mitochondria are where ATP is produced. 50. Which of the following is ONE major function of epithelial cells? A. Movement B. Secretion C. Support of other cell types D. Transmit electrical signals Answer is B: Glandular tissues are one type of epithelial tissue, and their function is to produce material to secrete. 51. What are the major types of tissue in the body? A. Nervous, muscle, epithelial, connective B. Squamous, cuboidal, columnar, transitional C. Osteocytes, chondrocytes, leucocytes, adipocytes D. Protein, adipose, cartilage, osseous Answer is A: Choice C refers to cell types; B is a list of epithelial tissue. Protein is applied to molecules. 52. Which of the following is NOT one of the organelles within a cell? A. Desmosome B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Mitochondrion D. Golgi apparatus Answer is A: Desmosomes (despite having the suffix “-some”) are not within the cell. They are structures that join adjacent plasma membranes to each other. 53. Which list contains the main body tissue types? A. Glandular, connective, osseous, nervous B. Epithelial, nervous, connective, muscle C. Endothelial, connective, muscle, cartilaginous D. Epithelial, cartilaginous, muscle, glandular Answer is B: The terms osseous, glandular and cartilaginous disqualify the other choices. 22 2 Cells and Tissues 54. The process of “diffusion” through a membrane may be described by which of the following? A. The movement of ions and molecules away from regions where they are in high concentration towards regions where they are in lower concentration. B. The use of energy from ATP to move ions and small molecules into regions where they are in lower concentration. C. The plasma membrane engulfs the substance and moves it through the membrane. D. The use of energy from ATP to move water molecules against their concen- tration gradient. Answer is A: The choices with ATP are nonsense. While choice C refers to endocytosis. 55. The process of “active transport” through a membrane may be described by which of the following? A. The movement of ions and small molecules away from regions where they are in high concentration. B. The use of energy from ATP to move ions and small molecules into regions where they are in lower concentration. C. The plasma membrane engulfs the substance and moves it through the membrane. D. The use of energy from ATP to move ions and small molecules against their concentration gradient. Answer is D: Energy (ATP) is required to force molecules against their concentra- tion gradient. 56. Which of the following is the smallest living structural unit of the body? A. Atom B. Molecule C. Organelle D. Cell Answer is D: The cell is smallest structural unit that is deemed to be alive. 57. Which of the following enables ions such as sodium to cross a plasma membrane? A. Phospholipid bilayer B. Peripheral proteins C. Integral proteins D. Desmosomes Answer is C: One function of integral protein in the PM is to form channels to allow for the passage of ions. 2.1 Cells and Tissues 23 58. Cell membranes can maintain a difference in electrical charge between the inte- rior of the cell and the extracellular fluid. What is this charge difference called? A. Excitability B. The membrane potential C. The action potential D. The sodium-potassium pump Answer is B: The inside of a cell is negative, while the exterior side of the mem- brane is positive. This difference in charge constitutes a difference in electrical potential (or voltage), known as the resting membrane potential. An action potential is generated when the membrane is stimulated and the potential reversed. 59. The resting membrane potential of a cell is the consequence of which of the following concentrations of ions? A. High K+ and Cl − outside the cell and high Na+ and large anions inside the cell B. High K+ and Na+ outside the cell and high Cl − and large anions inside the cell C. High Cl− and Na+ outside the cell and high K+ and large cations inside the cell D. High Ca2+ and Na+ outside the cell and high K+ and large cations inside the cell Answer is C: These ionic species are largely responsible for the membrane potential (cations are negative ions). While there is a higher concentration of Ca outside the cell than inside, there are fewer Ca than Cl ions. 60. What is one function of mitochondria? To: A. Produce enzymes to break down molecules B. Produce molecules of ATP C. Hold adjacent cells together D. Allow passage of molecules through the plasma membrane Answer is B: Mitochondria are organelles within which ATP is made. 61. Membrane proteins perform the following functions EXCEPT one. Which one? A. Form the glycocalyx B. Act as receptor proteins C. Form pores to allow the passage of small solutes D. Behave as enzymes Answer is A: The glycocalyx refers to molecules in the plasma membrane that have a carbohydrate chain attached (prefix “glyco-”). 62. Facilitated diffusion differs from active transport because facilitated diffusion: A. Requires energy from ATP 24 2 Cells and Tissues B. Moves molecules from where they are in lower concentration to higher concentration C. Moves molecules from where they are in higher concentration to lower concentration D. Involves ions and molecules that pass through membrane channels Answer is C: Diffusion always refers to movement from high to low concentration (without energy expenditure). Facilitated refers to the assistance provided by a transport molecule that is designed for the purpose. 63. Which of the following is NOT a connective tissue? A. Blood B. Mesothelium C. Fat D. Tendon Answer is B: Mesothelium is simple squamous epithelium that is found in serous membranes. 64. The cells that are found in tendons are called: A. Osteocytes B. Adipocytes C. Haemocytoblasts D. Fibroblasts Answer is D: Simple squamous. A single layer of flat (squashed) cells so diffusion through the layer takes place easily. Lines heart, lymph and blood vessels (known as endothelium). Called mesothelium when in serous membranes. 65. Which one of the following terms best describes the structure of the cell membrane? A. Fluid mosaic model B. Static mosaic model C. Quaternary structure D. Multilayered structure Answer is A: “Fluid” implies the structure can move and change (not like a brick wall); mosaic refers to the presence of proteins scattered among the glycolipids. 66. Which one of the following terms best describes a phospholipid. It consists of a: A. Polar head and polar tail B. Non-polar head and a polar tail C. Polar head and non-polar tail D. Non-polar head and a non-polar tail 2.1 Cells and Tissues 25 Answer is C: polar = hydrophilic head of phosphate, which can dissolve in the aque- ous extracellular solution because water molecules are polar; non-polar = hydro- phobic tails of lipid, which being non-polar, cannot dissolve in aqueous solutions. 67. One of the functions of integral proteins in cell membranes is to: A. Maintain the rigid structure of the cell B. Support mechanically the phospholipids C. Interact with the cytoplasm D. Form channels for transport functions Answer is D: Some proteins form channels which allow molecules and ions to enter the cell. 68. Which one of the following best describes what a cell membrane consists of? A. Lipids, proteins, ribosomes B. Lipids, cholesterol, proteins C. Cholesterol, proteins, cytoplasm D. Lipids, proteins, cytoplasm Answer is B: These are the three major constituents. Ribosomes and cytoplasm are found inside the cell. 69. Which one of the following organelles is considered as the “energy-producing” centre of the cell? A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum B. Golgi apparatus C. Mitochondria D. Ribosomes Answer is C: Mitochondria are where ATP molecules are produced from glucose. 70. What is the major function of lysosomes? They: A. Package proteins B. Detoxify toxic substances C. Catalyse lipid metabolism D. Digest unwanted particles within the cell Answer is D: The prefix “lys-” refers to the ability to alter molecules by dividing them into smaller pieces. 71. What is the purpose of the “sodium-potassium pump”? A. To perform endocytosis B. To move sodium and potassium by facilitated diffusion C. To perform bulk transport through the plasma membrane D. To produce a concentration gradient for sodium ions 26 2 Cells and Tissues Answer is D: A concentration gradient is set up by the use of energy to move Na ions to where they are in greater concentration. This requirement for energy means choice B is wrong. 72. Which of the following is NOT a type of cell? A. Ribosome B. Haemocytoblast C. Neutrophil D. Phagocyte Answer is A: A ribosome is a cell organelle, not a cell type. 73. What is the name of the mechanism that ensures that there is a higher concen- tration of sodium ions in the extracellular fluid than in the intracellular fluid? A. Facilitated diffusion B. The sodium-potassium pump C. Secondary active transport D. Osmosis Answer is B: The “pump” exchanges Na for K and uses energy from ATP to function. 74. What is the name given to the type of transport where glucose or an amino acid binds to a receptor protein on the plasma membrane, which then moves the molecule into the cell without the expenditure of energy? A. Facilitated diffusion B. Bulk transport C. Secondary active transport D. Active transport Answer is A: The membrane protein facilitates the entry into the cell. No energy is expended, so it is not active transport. 75. What is the name given to the movement of glucose or amino acids from the gut into the cells lining the gut, when they bind to a transport protein that has also bound a sodium ion? The sodium ion is entering the cell along its concentration gradient. A. Facilitated diffusion B. The sodium-potassium pump C. Active transport D. Secondary active transport Answer is D: The sodium ion was transported out of the cell with the use of energy in order to set up the sodium concentration gradient. This gradient then allows other molecules to enter the cell along with sodium’s re-entry. This is active (because energy used), but secondary as it occurs as a result of the previous active transport event. 2.1 Cells and Tissues 27 76. Mitochondria produce which of the following? A. ATP B. DNA C. RNA D. Proteins Answer is A: Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) 77. Why does the plasma membrane of a cell present a barrier to the movement of electrolytes through it? A. There are no channels in the membrane for the passage of electrolytes. B. Electrolytes are not soluble in the lipid of the membrane. C. Electrolytes are too large to pass through membrane channels. D. Membrane proteins electrically repel charged particles. Answer is B: Electrolytes, being charged particles, are not able to dissolve their way through the lipid plasma membrane (which is non-polar). Hence it is a barrier to them. 78. Which of the following statements about “leak channels” in the plasma mem- brane is correct? A. Proteins that form these channels bind to solutes to allow them to pass into the cell. B. They are passageways formed by proteins to allow water and ions to move passively through the membrane. C. They allow small ions and molecules to move between adjacent cells. D. They are formed by glycoprotein and proteoglycans to allow hormones to enter cells. Answer is B: This is the definition of leak channels. They may be “gated” which means shut until stimulated to open. Choice A refers to facilitated diffusion. 79. What are the primary types of body tissue? A. Connective tissue, blood, muscle tissue, nervous tissue, epithelial tissue B. Muscle tissue, osseous tissue, epithelial tissue, nervous tissue, blood, con- nective tissue C. Nervous tissue, epithelial tissue, muscle tissue, connective tissue D. Epithelial tissue, connective tissue, adipose tissue, muscle tissue, nervous tissue Answer is C: These are the four primary types. Blood is not a “type” of tissue. 80. Epithelial and connective tissues differ from each other in which of the follow- ing characteristics? A. Epithelial tissue contains fibres, but connective tissue does not. B. Connective tissue is avascular, but epithelial tissue is well-vascularised. 28 2 Cells and Tissues C. Cells in epithelial tissue are closely packed, whereas in connective tissue they are not. D. Connective tissue includes tissue that makes up glands, but epithelial tissue does not occur in glands. Answer is C: The other choices are not correct. 81. Which of the following is a component of the plasma membrane of a cell? A. Plasma B. Glycolipid C. Plasma proteins D. Cholesterol Answer is D: Despite the term “plasma”, A and C are wrong. And it is phospholip- ids, not glycolipids, that occur in the membrane. 82. What term is used to describe the movement of dissolved particles along (or down) their concentration gradient? A. Endocytosis B. Active transport C. Osmosis D. Diffusion Answer is D: Following the concentration gradient is a passive process. Choice C applies only to water molecules. 83. Which of the following molecules cannot pass through the plasma membrane? A. Water molecules B. Non-polar molecules C. Amino acid-based hormones D. Fat-soluble molecules Answer is C: These hormones are not lipid soluble and too large to pass through channels. 84. Which of the following is a connective tissue? A. Pancreas B. Spinal cord C. Muscle D. Blood Answer is D: Blood contains cells separated by a liquid matrix. Choices A and B are epithelial and nervous tissues. 85. Which of the following is an epithelial tissue? A. Adipose tissue B. The adrenal gland 2.1 Cells and Tissues 29 C. The heart D. Blood Answer is B: The adrenal gland is glandular epithelial tissue. 86. What is the major component of the plasma membrane of a cell? A. Phospholipid B. Glycolipid C. Integral protein D. Cholesterol Answer is A: Cholesterol and proteins are also present in the plasma membrane but as more minor components. 87. Which one of the following is NOT a function of membrane proteins? A. They form a structure called a glycocalyx. B. They attach cells to each other. C. They form passageways to allow solutes to pass through the membrane. D. They from receptors which can bind messenger molecules. Answer is A: The glycocalyx is thought of as being membrane carbohydrates. 88. Facilitated diffusion through a membrane involves which of the following scenarios? A. The diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane along its concentration gradient B. The movement of a molecule against its concentration gradient with the expenditure of energy C. The plasma membrane surrounding (engulfing) the molecule and the mol- ecule moving into the cell D. A molecule binding to a receptor which moves the molecule through the membrane without the expenditure of energy Answer is D: Facilitation is by binding to a membrane protein. 89. The diffusion of water through a membrane is referred to as: A. Secondary active transport B. Bulk transport C. Osmosis D. Endocytosis Answer is C: Osmosis is a word that is reserved for the movement of water through a membrane. 90. What is the tissue that covers the body surface and lines internal tubes called? A. Epithelial tissue B. Connective tissue 30 2 Cells and Tissues C. Glandular epithelium D. Muscle tissue Answer is A: Epithelial tissue has one surface “open” to the exterior or to the con- tents of the tube. 91. Which of the following is true for connective tissue? A. It consists of cells, a basement membrane and intercellular matrix. B. Its cells are closely packed and held together by protein fibres. C. It has a high rate of cell division and no blood supply. D. It is made of cells, protein fibres and ground substance. Answer is D: Connective tissue includes fibres and cells which are not closely packed. 92. The cell membrane’s resting potential (about −70 mV inside with respect to the outside) is due mainly to which of the following mechanisms? A. The sodium-potassium pump B. The diffusion of cations and anions through the membrane along their con- centration gradients C. The diffusion of sodium and potassium across the cell membrane D. The presence inside the cell of anions too large to passively cross the cell membrane Answer is A: The ATPase pump shifts 3 Na+ out of the cell and 2 K+ into the cell. This disparity in positive charge is the major influence on the resting potential. 93. Which of the following cells are uninucleate (have a single nucleus)? A. Red blood cells B. Epithelial cells C. Skeletal muscle cells D. Osteoclasts Answer is B: Red blood cells have no nucleus, while osteoclasts and skeletal muscle cells are multinucleate. 94. What is the function of the cell plasma membrane? A. It maintains an intracellular environment that is hypotonic compared to the extracellular fluid. B. It protects the cell from dehydration by limiting water flow from the cell. C. It regulates the passage of molecules and ions into an out of the cell. D. It provides the supportive medium for membrane proteins. Answer is C: The plasma membrane is made of lipid and separates the aqueous intracellular fluid from the aqueous extracellular fluid. Substances cannot enter or leave the cell unless they are lipid soluble or by endo-/exocytosis or have a mem- brane protein pore or transport mechanism that can move them through the membrane. 2.1 Cells and Tissues 31 95. Which of the following cells would be found in connective tissue? A. Mucous cells B. Goblet cells C. Chondrocytes D. Neurons Answer is C: Chondro- refers to cartilage, so chondrocytes are cells found in carti- lage. Cartilage is a connective tissue. The other choices are found in epithelial tis- sue, or nervous tissue. 96. Which of the following cells would be found in nervous tissue? A. Dendrocytes B. Microglia C. Microphages D. Erythrocytes Answer is B: Microglia is a term that refers to the support cells of the nervous sys- tem. Dendrocytes are found in the epidermis and there are no erythrocytes in the CNS. 97. Which of the four types of tissue do all organs contain? A. Connective, epithelial and nervous tissues. B. Muscle, epithelial and nervous tissues. C. Organs contain all four types of tissues. D. Muscle, connective and epithelial tissues. Answer is C: All organs have capillaries and a blood supply. Blood is a connective tissue, and capillaries are made of epithelial tissue; the arterial end of capillaries has a precapillary sphincter which is made of smooth muscle cells. All organs are inner- vated so they contain nervous tissue. 98. What is “deep fascia”? A. Connective tissue that surrounds muscle B. Epithelial tissue that lies under the skin C. Connective tissue of the hypodermis D. Epithelial tissue of the abdominal serous membranes Answer is A: Deep fascia is a fibrous connective tissue that surrounds and pene- trates into the muscles, as well as surrounding bones, nerves and blood vessels. Muscle epimysium is an example of deep fascia. Choice C is referring to superficial fascia. 99. Which of the following cells are found in cartilage? A. Osteocytes B. Chondrocytes C. Lymphocytes D. Monocytes 32 2 Cells and Tissues Answer is B: “Chondros” means cartilage in Greek (!). 100. Which of the following cells are found in bone? A. Dendrocytes B. Erythrocytes C. Osteocytes D. Pneumocytes Answer is C: “Osteo” is ancient (?) Greek for bone. 101. Which of the following cells are found in the lungs? A. Pneumocytes B. Leucocytes C. Keratinocytes D. Sertoli cells Answer is A: “Pneumo” comes from the Greek for lung or air. The other cells are found in the blood, epidermis and testicles, respectively. 102. Which of the following cells are found in the liver? A. Myocytes B. Pericytes C. Podocytes D. Hepatocytes Answer is D: “Hepato” comes from the Greek language and refers to liver. 103. What are generally referred to as organelles? A. Small exocrine organs such as salivary glands, sudiferous glands, etc. B. Small endocrine glands such as the pituitary, adrenal glands, etc. C. Structures of the general senses such as lamellated corpuscles, muscle spindles, etc. D. Structures within a cell such as ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, etc. Answer is D: Organelles are not glands. They are structures within a cell. 104. To what does the term “integral protein” refer? A. To proteins that lie within the plasma membrane of a cell B. To a protein that must be included in the diet as they cannot be manufac- tured by the body C. To a protein found within the central nervous system D. To plasma proteins that exist in the blood but not in the interstitial fluid Answer is A: “Integral” refers to being within the cell membrane. The other choices are not even close to being correct. 105. What is the term used to describe the bulk movement of a large number of molecules out of a cell? 2.1 Cells and Tissues 33 A. Lymphocytosis B. Exocytosis C. Thrombocytosis D. Endocytosis Answer is B: “Exo-” refers to movement from inside to the outside (-cytosis is a suffix that means in reference to cells). 106. In which organelle of the cell do most aerobic respiration reactions happen? A. In the nucleus B. In the mitochondria C. In the ribosomes D. In the lysosomes Answer is B: Mitochondria are the site of aerobic respiration. That is, the produc- tion of ATP from pyruvic acid (via glucose) and oxygen. 107. Which of the following is NOT an example of connective tissue? A. Blood B. Bone C. Smooth muscle D. Superficial fascia Answer is C: There are four basics types of tissue. Connective tissue and muscle are two of them, so C is not a connective tissue. The other three choices are. 108. Which of the following is NOT classed as a lipid? A. Fatty acids B. Oils C. Steroids D. Keratin Answer is D: Examples of lipids are waxes, fats, oils, steroids, cholesterol and phos- pholipids. Keratin is a protein (the “-in” ending to keratin denotes that). 109. A particular tissue contains cells that have a process that extends for 20 or 30 cm from the cell body. What type of tissue is it likely to be? A. Neural tissue B. Muscle tissue C. Epithelial tissue D. Connective tissue Answer is D: The long process is called an axon and belongs to a neurone. So the tissue is neural tissue. 110. The cells of a tissue are long and cylindrical and are contain a great number of nuclei. In what type of tissue will such a cell be found? 34 2 Cells and Tissues A. Neural tissue B. Muscle tissue C. Epithelial tissue D. Connective tissue Answer is B: The cell is a skeletal muscle fibre, so the tissue is muscle tissue. 111. What types of cells are found in a single layer lining the inner surface of the tubes in the body and are surrounded by a noncellular membrane? A. Neural tissue B. Muscle tissue C. Epithelial tissue D. Connective tissue Answer is C: The description indicates epithelial cells and their basement membrane. 112. A particular tissue contains cells that are widely separated from each other and surrounded by a tissue component that is not cellular. What type of tissue conforms with this description? A. Neural tissue B. Muscle tissue C. Epithelial tissue D. Connective tissue Answer is D: Connective tissue consists of a noncellular matrix in which are distrib- uted cells that are not adjacent to each other. 2.2 Cell Cycle (Mitosis and Protein Synthesis) The cell nucleus contains chromosomes which are composed of molecules of DNA. DNA is composed of units called nucleotides which consist of a sugar (deoxy- ribose) attached to a phosphoric acid group PO(OH)3 and one of four bases (ade- nine, guanine, cytosine and thymine). Chromosomes contain the code for the sequence of amino acids used to construct different proteins. Each amino acid is coded by a particular sequence of three of the four bases. This sequence is called a “codon”. mRNA “transcribes” this code and then moves from the nucleus to a ribo- some in the cytoplasm where it is “translated” and the protein is assembled by join- ing the required amino acids in the appropriate sequence. Mitosis is the process by which a somatic cell divides to produce two cells with identical DNA. In this way an organism can grow. Before mitosis, the DNA must be duplicated. Hence the chromosomes (consisting of one strand or “chromatid”) syn- thesise a second strand to become a chromosome of two chromatids. Then during mitosis the two chromatids separate and move into the two daughter cells. 2.2 Cell Cycle (Mitosis and Protein Synthesis) 35 Meiosis occurs only in the gonads. This process results in four daughter cells. Human cells have two copies of each of 23 chromosomes, one copy being inherited from the father and the other copy from the mother. The gametes need to have only one copy of each of the 23 chromosomes, so that when the sperm fuses with the ovum, the “diploid” number of 46 (two copies of each chromosome) is restored. Meiosis is the process by which cells reduce their number of chromosomes from 46 to 23 different chromosomes. Of the 23 chromosomes in a sperm (or ovum), some (between 0 and 23) will have come from the sperm owner’s mother, and the rest from the sperm owner’s father. The same can be said of the 23 chromosomes in the ovum. In this way the resulting children will be genetically different from each of their parents (and siblings) as each sperm/ovum will have a different assortment of the 23 available chromosomes. 1. The term “chromatin” would be used in reference to which of the following? A. Genetic substance B. Cellular energy C. Membrane support D. Nuclear membrane Answer is A: Chromatin is DNA and the associated proteins so it pertains to genetic material. 2. In protein synthesis, where dose translation occur? In the: A. Cytoplasm between ribosomes, tRNA and mRNA B. Nucleus between ribosomes, tRNA and mRNA C. Nucleus between DNA and mRNA D. Cytoplasm between DNA and mRNA Answer is A: Translation occurs in the cytoplasm (transcription occurs in the nucleus). DNA does not exist in the cytoplasm. 3. If the DNA strand sequence of bases is CTT AGA CTA ATA, what would the tRNA read? A. GAA TCT GAT TAT B. CUU AGA CUA AUA C. GAA UCU GAU UAU D. GUU ACA GUA AUA Answer is C: Guanine (G) must be matched to cytosine (C) and vice versa. Adenine (A) must match with thymine (T). In RNA, uracil (U) replaces thymine; hence U must be matched to A. 4. Which one of the following statements best describes DNA? A. Single-stranded, deoxyribonucleic acid B. Single-stranded, ribonucleic acid C. Double-stranded, deoxyribonucleic acid D. Double-stranded, ribonucleic acid 36 2 Cells and Tissues Answer is C: DNA is double-stranded, while the “D” refers to “deoxy-”. 5. In which phase of mitosis would chromosomes line up at the centre of the spindle? A. Anaphase B. Interphase C. Prophase D. Metaphase Answer is D: Remember the metaphase plate occupies the middle of the cell. 6. In a cell cycle, which phase takes the longest time to complete? A. Anaphase B. Interphase C. Prophase D. Telophase Answer is B: Interphase is the time when the cell is performing its normal function and not dividing. 7. What is the purpose of meiosis? To produce: A. DNA B. Somatic cells C. Diploid cells D. Haploid cells Answer is D: Meiosis produ