NUR 2474 Exam 1
Pharmacology for Professional
Nursing
125 Comprehensive Questions With Detailed Rationales
Rasmussen University | Latest
Aligned with NUR 2474 Exam 1 Course Objectives
EXAM STRUCTURE SUMMARY
Total Questions: 125
Sections: 8
Cognitive Levels: 35% Recall | 45% Application | 20% Analysis
Question Type: 4-option multiple choice (A-D), one correct
Style: 75% Scenario-based | 25% Direct recall and calculation
Coverage Highlights
• Pharmacologic foundations, drug regulation, controlled substance schedules
• Pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, receptor pharmacology, therapeutic index
,NUR 2474 Exam 1 | Pharmacology for Professional Nursing | Rasmussen | 2026/2027 Latest Update
• Drug interactions, CYP450 system, pharmacogenomics
• Six Rights, Three Checks, high-alert medications, error prevention
• Dosage calculations with step-by-step rationales (oral, IV, weight-based)
• Lifespan, cultural, and genetic considerations (pediatric, geriatric, pregnancy)
• Autonomic nervous system pharmacology (adrenergic and cholinergic)
• Patient education, monitoring, and nursing responsibilities
Rasmussen University Nursing Program
Prepared for NUR 2474 Pharmacology for Professional Nursing Exam 1
Z.ai - NUR 2474 Pharmacology for Professional Nursing Page 2
,NUR 2474 Exam 1 | Pharmacology for Professional Nursing | Rasmussen | 2026/2027 Latest Update
Section 1: Pharmacologic Foundations and Drug Regulation
(Q1-Q15)
Drug Sources, Naming Systems, FDA Approval, Pregnancy Categories, & Drug Legislation (Q1-Q15)
Q1: A nurse is reviewing medication orders and notes that the provider has prescribed "acetaminophen 650 mg
PO every 6 hours PRN for pain." The nurse recognizes that "acetaminophen" represents which type of drug
name?
A. Chemical name (N-acetyl-p-aminophenol)
B. Generic (nonproprietary) name—the universally accepted name assigned by the United States
Adopted Names (USAN) Council, used in all official drug references and on labels [CORRECT]
C. Brand (trade/proprietary) name (Tylenol)
D. Chemical formula name
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Drug names have three categories: (1) Chemical—exact molecular description (e.g., N-acetyl-p-aminophenol); (2)
Generic (nonproprietary, USAN)—universal, lowercase, assigned by USAN Council, not owned by any company (e.g.,
acetaminophen); (3) Brand (trade, proprietary)—capitalized, registered trademark owned by a manufacturer (e.g.,
Tylenol). The nurse should know that the generic name is the same across all manufacturers, is used on hospital MARs
and in pharmacology references, and is the safest to use to avoid errors. Brand names vary by manufacturer and
country. Chemical names are rarely used clinically.
Q2: A client asks the nurse about the difference between a generic and brand-name medication. The BEST
response by the nurse is:
A. Generic drugs have a different active ingredient than brand-name drugs
B. Generic drugs contain the SAME active ingredient as the brand-name drug and must meet FDA
bioequivalence standards (80-125% bioavailability); only inactive ingredients (binders, colorants,
preservatives) may differ [CORRECT]
C. Generic drugs are always less effective than brand-name drugs
D. Generic drugs do not require FDA approval
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
FDA requirements for generic drug approval: same active ingredient, same dosage form, same route, same strength,
same indication, AND must meet bioequivalence standards (80-125% of the brand-name's bioavailability in healthy
volunteers). Inactive ingredients (binders, colorants, preservatives, flavorings) may differ, which can rarely affect
allergy or absorption in sensitive individuals. Generic drugs meet the same quality, purity, strength, and stability
standards as brand-name drugs. Lower cost reflects lack of research/development/marketing costs, not inferiority.
Option A is incorrect (same active ingredient); C is incorrect (equally effective); D is incorrect (FDA approval
required).
Q3: A nurse is teaching a client about a newly prescribed medication that was approved by the FDA under
accelerated approval. The client asks what this means. The BEST response is:
Z.ai - NUR 2474 Pharmacology for Professional Nursing Page 3
, NUR 2474 Exam 1 | Pharmacology for Professional Nursing | Rasmussen | 2026/2027 Latest Update
A. The medication has been proven safe but requires no further studies
B. Accelerated approval allows drugs for serious or life-threatening conditions to be approved based on
surrogate endpoints (e.g., tumor shrinkage, lab values) reasonably likely to predict clinical benefit, with
required post-marketing studies to verify benefit [CORRECT]
C. The medication is available over-the-counter without a prescription
D. The medication has been removed from the market
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The FDA's accelerated approval pathway (21 CFR Part 314 Subpart H) allows drugs for serious/life-threatening
conditions to be approved based on surrogate endpoints (e.g., lab values, tumor shrinkage, blood pressure, CD4 count)
reasonably likely to predict clinical benefit. The sponsor MUST conduct post-marketing (Phase IV) confirmatory trials
to verify clinical benefit; failure to verify may result in withdrawal. This pathway speeds access to therapies for unmet
medical needs, especially in oncology, HIV, rare diseases. Options A, C, D are incorrect: A—further studies required;
C—accelerated approval is for prescription drugs; D—accelerated approval means newly available, not removed.
Q4: A nurse is reviewing FDA pregnancy categories and notes a medication classified as Category X. The nurse
understands that this medication:
A. Has been proven safe in animal studies but no human studies
B. Is CONTRAINDICATED in pregnancy—studies in animals OR humans have demonstrated fetal
abnormalities OR risks clearly outweigh benefits; should NOT be used during pregnancy [CORRECT]
C. Has no risk to the fetus
D. Is safe during the third trimester only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
FDA Pregnancy Categories (older letter system, replaced by PLLR in 2015 but still referenced): Category A—adequate
human studies show no risk; B—animal studies no risk, no adequate human studies OR animal risk but no human risk;
C—animal risk, no human studies OR no studies; D—evidence of human fetal risk, but benefits may outweigh;
X—CONTRAINDICATED in pregnancy, fetal abnormalities OR risks clearly outweigh benefits (e.g., isotretinoin,
warfarin, finasteride, oral contraceptives combined, methotrexate, thalidomide). The newer PLLR (Pregnancy and
Lactation Labeling Rule, effective 2015) replaced letter categories with narrative sections: Pregnancy Exposure
Registry, Risk Summary, Clinical Considerations, Data; Lactation; Females/Males of Reproductive Potential. Category
X is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy.
Q5: A client is prescribed a medication classified as Schedule II under the Controlled Substances Act. The nurse
understands that Schedule II drugs:
A. Have no accepted medical use and high abuse potential
B. Have an ACCEPTED medical use AND HIGH abuse potential with SEVERE physical or psychological
dependence (e.g., morphine, oxycodone, fentanyl, methylphenidate); NO refills allowed; new prescription
required for each fill [CORRECT]
C. Have low abuse potential and may be refilled 5 times in 6 months
D. Are available over-the-counter
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
DEA Controlled Substance Schedules: Schedule I—HIGH abuse potential, NO accepted medical use, NOT available
by prescription (heroin, LSD, MDMA, marijuana federally); Schedule II—ACCEPTED medical use, HIGH abuse
potential, SEVERE dependence (morphine, oxycodone, hydromorphone, fentanyl, methadone, methylphenidate,
Z.ai - NUR 2474 Pharmacology for Professional Nursing Page 4
Pharmacology for Professional
Nursing
125 Comprehensive Questions With Detailed Rationales
Rasmussen University | Latest
Aligned with NUR 2474 Exam 1 Course Objectives
EXAM STRUCTURE SUMMARY
Total Questions: 125
Sections: 8
Cognitive Levels: 35% Recall | 45% Application | 20% Analysis
Question Type: 4-option multiple choice (A-D), one correct
Style: 75% Scenario-based | 25% Direct recall and calculation
Coverage Highlights
• Pharmacologic foundations, drug regulation, controlled substance schedules
• Pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, receptor pharmacology, therapeutic index
,NUR 2474 Exam 1 | Pharmacology for Professional Nursing | Rasmussen | 2026/2027 Latest Update
• Drug interactions, CYP450 system, pharmacogenomics
• Six Rights, Three Checks, high-alert medications, error prevention
• Dosage calculations with step-by-step rationales (oral, IV, weight-based)
• Lifespan, cultural, and genetic considerations (pediatric, geriatric, pregnancy)
• Autonomic nervous system pharmacology (adrenergic and cholinergic)
• Patient education, monitoring, and nursing responsibilities
Rasmussen University Nursing Program
Prepared for NUR 2474 Pharmacology for Professional Nursing Exam 1
Z.ai - NUR 2474 Pharmacology for Professional Nursing Page 2
,NUR 2474 Exam 1 | Pharmacology for Professional Nursing | Rasmussen | 2026/2027 Latest Update
Section 1: Pharmacologic Foundations and Drug Regulation
(Q1-Q15)
Drug Sources, Naming Systems, FDA Approval, Pregnancy Categories, & Drug Legislation (Q1-Q15)
Q1: A nurse is reviewing medication orders and notes that the provider has prescribed "acetaminophen 650 mg
PO every 6 hours PRN for pain." The nurse recognizes that "acetaminophen" represents which type of drug
name?
A. Chemical name (N-acetyl-p-aminophenol)
B. Generic (nonproprietary) name—the universally accepted name assigned by the United States
Adopted Names (USAN) Council, used in all official drug references and on labels [CORRECT]
C. Brand (trade/proprietary) name (Tylenol)
D. Chemical formula name
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Drug names have three categories: (1) Chemical—exact molecular description (e.g., N-acetyl-p-aminophenol); (2)
Generic (nonproprietary, USAN)—universal, lowercase, assigned by USAN Council, not owned by any company (e.g.,
acetaminophen); (3) Brand (trade, proprietary)—capitalized, registered trademark owned by a manufacturer (e.g.,
Tylenol). The nurse should know that the generic name is the same across all manufacturers, is used on hospital MARs
and in pharmacology references, and is the safest to use to avoid errors. Brand names vary by manufacturer and
country. Chemical names are rarely used clinically.
Q2: A client asks the nurse about the difference between a generic and brand-name medication. The BEST
response by the nurse is:
A. Generic drugs have a different active ingredient than brand-name drugs
B. Generic drugs contain the SAME active ingredient as the brand-name drug and must meet FDA
bioequivalence standards (80-125% bioavailability); only inactive ingredients (binders, colorants,
preservatives) may differ [CORRECT]
C. Generic drugs are always less effective than brand-name drugs
D. Generic drugs do not require FDA approval
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
FDA requirements for generic drug approval: same active ingredient, same dosage form, same route, same strength,
same indication, AND must meet bioequivalence standards (80-125% of the brand-name's bioavailability in healthy
volunteers). Inactive ingredients (binders, colorants, preservatives, flavorings) may differ, which can rarely affect
allergy or absorption in sensitive individuals. Generic drugs meet the same quality, purity, strength, and stability
standards as brand-name drugs. Lower cost reflects lack of research/development/marketing costs, not inferiority.
Option A is incorrect (same active ingredient); C is incorrect (equally effective); D is incorrect (FDA approval
required).
Q3: A nurse is teaching a client about a newly prescribed medication that was approved by the FDA under
accelerated approval. The client asks what this means. The BEST response is:
Z.ai - NUR 2474 Pharmacology for Professional Nursing Page 3
, NUR 2474 Exam 1 | Pharmacology for Professional Nursing | Rasmussen | 2026/2027 Latest Update
A. The medication has been proven safe but requires no further studies
B. Accelerated approval allows drugs for serious or life-threatening conditions to be approved based on
surrogate endpoints (e.g., tumor shrinkage, lab values) reasonably likely to predict clinical benefit, with
required post-marketing studies to verify benefit [CORRECT]
C. The medication is available over-the-counter without a prescription
D. The medication has been removed from the market
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The FDA's accelerated approval pathway (21 CFR Part 314 Subpart H) allows drugs for serious/life-threatening
conditions to be approved based on surrogate endpoints (e.g., lab values, tumor shrinkage, blood pressure, CD4 count)
reasonably likely to predict clinical benefit. The sponsor MUST conduct post-marketing (Phase IV) confirmatory trials
to verify clinical benefit; failure to verify may result in withdrawal. This pathway speeds access to therapies for unmet
medical needs, especially in oncology, HIV, rare diseases. Options A, C, D are incorrect: A—further studies required;
C—accelerated approval is for prescription drugs; D—accelerated approval means newly available, not removed.
Q4: A nurse is reviewing FDA pregnancy categories and notes a medication classified as Category X. The nurse
understands that this medication:
A. Has been proven safe in animal studies but no human studies
B. Is CONTRAINDICATED in pregnancy—studies in animals OR humans have demonstrated fetal
abnormalities OR risks clearly outweigh benefits; should NOT be used during pregnancy [CORRECT]
C. Has no risk to the fetus
D. Is safe during the third trimester only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
FDA Pregnancy Categories (older letter system, replaced by PLLR in 2015 but still referenced): Category A—adequate
human studies show no risk; B—animal studies no risk, no adequate human studies OR animal risk but no human risk;
C—animal risk, no human studies OR no studies; D—evidence of human fetal risk, but benefits may outweigh;
X—CONTRAINDICATED in pregnancy, fetal abnormalities OR risks clearly outweigh benefits (e.g., isotretinoin,
warfarin, finasteride, oral contraceptives combined, methotrexate, thalidomide). The newer PLLR (Pregnancy and
Lactation Labeling Rule, effective 2015) replaced letter categories with narrative sections: Pregnancy Exposure
Registry, Risk Summary, Clinical Considerations, Data; Lactation; Females/Males of Reproductive Potential. Category
X is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy.
Q5: A client is prescribed a medication classified as Schedule II under the Controlled Substances Act. The nurse
understands that Schedule II drugs:
A. Have no accepted medical use and high abuse potential
B. Have an ACCEPTED medical use AND HIGH abuse potential with SEVERE physical or psychological
dependence (e.g., morphine, oxycodone, fentanyl, methylphenidate); NO refills allowed; new prescription
required for each fill [CORRECT]
C. Have low abuse potential and may be refilled 5 times in 6 months
D. Are available over-the-counter
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
DEA Controlled Substance Schedules: Schedule I—HIGH abuse potential, NO accepted medical use, NOT available
by prescription (heroin, LSD, MDMA, marijuana federally); Schedule II—ACCEPTED medical use, HIGH abuse
potential, SEVERE dependence (morphine, oxycodone, hydromorphone, fentanyl, methadone, methylphenidate,
Z.ai - NUR 2474 Pharmacology for Professional Nursing Page 4
