NUR 2063 | Independent Pathophysiology Practice | 2026/2027 Page 1
, NUR 2063 FINAL EXAM
Essentials of Pathophysiology
Rasmussen University
100 Original Practice Q & A with Rationales
2026/2027 Edition
1. A patient has sudden generalized inflammatory mediator release with hypotension after
allergenexposure. What shock category is this?
A) Cardiogenic shock from infarction only
B) Distributive shock due to anaphylaxis
C) Obstructive shock from tamponade
D) Hypovolemic shock from bleeding only
Correct Answer: Distributive shock due to anaphylaxis
Rationale: Anaphylactic mediators produce vasodilation and capillary leak, reducing effective circulation.
Bronchospasm and edema can coexist. Epinephrine and emergency support are essential.
2. A person carries a dominant pathogenic variant but never develops the associated phenotype.
Whatconcept applies?
A) Anaplasia
B) Reduced penetrance
C) Necrosis
D) Hyperemia
Correct Answer: Reduced penetrance
Rationale: Penetrance is the proportion of individuals with a genotype who show the phenotype. Reduced penetrance
explains absence of manifestations in some carriers. It is distinct from differing degrees of severity.
3. A child has a disease caused by a pathogenic mitochondrial DNA variant. Which inheritance
patternis characteristic?
A) Exclusive father-to-son transmission
B) Autosomal recessive segregation only
C) Y-linked transmission
D) Maternal transmission
Correct Answer: Maternal transmission
Rationale: Mitochondrial DNA is usually inherited through the oocyte. Affected mothers may transmit variants, with
variable expression due to heteroplasmy. Fathers generally do not transmit mitochondrial DNA.
4. A wound produces crepitus and severe pain after contaminated trauma. Which pathogen-
associatedprocess is concerning?
NUR 2063 | Independent Pathophysiology Practice | 2026/2027 Page 2
, A) Clostridial gas gangrene
B) Normal granulation
C) Uncomplicated eczema
D) Sterile coagulative necrosis only
Correct Answer: Clostridial gas gangrene
Rationale: Gas-forming clostridia can produce rapidly progressive myonecrosis and systemic toxicity. Crepitus and
pain demand urgent surgical and antimicrobial evaluation. Delay increases mortality.
5. A person has an acute inflammatory response but no fever. What is accurate?
A) Fever is required for every inflammatory response
B) Absence of fever proves absence of infection
C) Local inflammation can occur without systemic fever
D) Only viruses cause local inflammation
Correct Answer: Local inflammation can occur without systemic fever
Rationale: Local inflammation and systemic fever are related but separable responses. Immunosuppression and age
can blunt fever. Clinical assessment must consider other signs.
6. A patient with fever has increased hypothalamic temperature set point from inflammatory mediators.
What is occurring?
A) Hyperthermia with unchanged set point only
B) Normal circadian variation only
C) Fever mediated by pyrogenic cytokines and prostaglandin E2
D) Apoptotic body clearance
Correct Answer: Fever mediated by pyrogenic cytokines and prostaglandin E2
Rationale: Cytokines stimulate prostaglandin production that raises the thermoregulatory set point. Chills may precede
temperature elevation. Hyperthermia instead occurs without a regulated set-point rise.
7. A patient reports severe pain from a mildly painful stimulus after tissue injury. Which process fits?
A) Hyperalgesia
B) Allodynia exclusively
C) Normal threshold with no sensitization
D) Anaplasia
Correct Answer: Hyperalgesia
Rationale: Hyperalgesia is enhanced pain response to normally painful stimulation. Inflammatory mediators and neural
sensitization can contribute. Clinical assessment guides management.
8. A tumor's cells enter the bloodstream and establish a lesion in the liver far from the primary site.
What process is described?
A) Benign hyperplasia
B) Atrophy
NUR 2063 | Independent Pathophysiology Practice | 2026/2027 Page 3
, NUR 2063 FINAL EXAM
Essentials of Pathophysiology
Rasmussen University
100 Original Practice Q & A with Rationales
2026/2027 Edition
1. A patient has sudden generalized inflammatory mediator release with hypotension after
allergenexposure. What shock category is this?
A) Cardiogenic shock from infarction only
B) Distributive shock due to anaphylaxis
C) Obstructive shock from tamponade
D) Hypovolemic shock from bleeding only
Correct Answer: Distributive shock due to anaphylaxis
Rationale: Anaphylactic mediators produce vasodilation and capillary leak, reducing effective circulation.
Bronchospasm and edema can coexist. Epinephrine and emergency support are essential.
2. A person carries a dominant pathogenic variant but never develops the associated phenotype.
Whatconcept applies?
A) Anaplasia
B) Reduced penetrance
C) Necrosis
D) Hyperemia
Correct Answer: Reduced penetrance
Rationale: Penetrance is the proportion of individuals with a genotype who show the phenotype. Reduced penetrance
explains absence of manifestations in some carriers. It is distinct from differing degrees of severity.
3. A child has a disease caused by a pathogenic mitochondrial DNA variant. Which inheritance
patternis characteristic?
A) Exclusive father-to-son transmission
B) Autosomal recessive segregation only
C) Y-linked transmission
D) Maternal transmission
Correct Answer: Maternal transmission
Rationale: Mitochondrial DNA is usually inherited through the oocyte. Affected mothers may transmit variants, with
variable expression due to heteroplasmy. Fathers generally do not transmit mitochondrial DNA.
4. A wound produces crepitus and severe pain after contaminated trauma. Which pathogen-
associatedprocess is concerning?
NUR 2063 | Independent Pathophysiology Practice | 2026/2027 Page 2
, A) Clostridial gas gangrene
B) Normal granulation
C) Uncomplicated eczema
D) Sterile coagulative necrosis only
Correct Answer: Clostridial gas gangrene
Rationale: Gas-forming clostridia can produce rapidly progressive myonecrosis and systemic toxicity. Crepitus and
pain demand urgent surgical and antimicrobial evaluation. Delay increases mortality.
5. A person has an acute inflammatory response but no fever. What is accurate?
A) Fever is required for every inflammatory response
B) Absence of fever proves absence of infection
C) Local inflammation can occur without systemic fever
D) Only viruses cause local inflammation
Correct Answer: Local inflammation can occur without systemic fever
Rationale: Local inflammation and systemic fever are related but separable responses. Immunosuppression and age
can blunt fever. Clinical assessment must consider other signs.
6. A patient with fever has increased hypothalamic temperature set point from inflammatory mediators.
What is occurring?
A) Hyperthermia with unchanged set point only
B) Normal circadian variation only
C) Fever mediated by pyrogenic cytokines and prostaglandin E2
D) Apoptotic body clearance
Correct Answer: Fever mediated by pyrogenic cytokines and prostaglandin E2
Rationale: Cytokines stimulate prostaglandin production that raises the thermoregulatory set point. Chills may precede
temperature elevation. Hyperthermia instead occurs without a regulated set-point rise.
7. A patient reports severe pain from a mildly painful stimulus after tissue injury. Which process fits?
A) Hyperalgesia
B) Allodynia exclusively
C) Normal threshold with no sensitization
D) Anaplasia
Correct Answer: Hyperalgesia
Rationale: Hyperalgesia is enhanced pain response to normally painful stimulation. Inflammatory mediators and neural
sensitization can contribute. Clinical assessment guides management.
8. A tumor's cells enter the bloodstream and establish a lesion in the liver far from the primary site.
What process is described?
A) Benign hyperplasia
B) Atrophy
NUR 2063 | Independent Pathophysiology Practice | 2026/2027 Page 3
