INDEPENDENT STUDY RESOURCE • NURS711 • 2026–2027
NURS711 — Pharmacotherapies Exam 3 2026–2027
NURS 711 | Pharmacotherapies for Nursing Practice
Institution / scope: University of South Carolina
Contents: 100 independently authored educational practice questions with one keyed answer and a rationale per question;
quick answer key at the end.
Original practice questions
Cardio
1. A patient on warfarin has a new prescription for an interacting medication. What is the priority?
A. Assume INR cannot change
B. Give aspirin automatically
C. Review bleeding risk and the INR-monitoring plan
D. Stop all foods with vitamin K permanently
Correct Answer: C — Review bleeding risk and the INR-monitoring plan
Rationale: Many medications interact with warfarin; INR and bleeding assessment guide management.
2. A patient taking a beta blocker reports new syncope and bradycardia. What should the nurse do?
A. Ignore fainting if medication is scheduled
B. Give a double loading dose
C. Encourage immediate jogging
D. Check hemodynamic status and notify the care team per hold parameters
Correct Answer: D — Check hemodynamic status and notify the care team per hold parameters
Rationale: Symptomatic bradycardia requires assessment and review of the therapeutic plan.
3. An ACE inhibitor user develops lip and tongue swelling. Which concern requires urgent action?
A. Potential airway-compromising angioedema
B. Normal expected therapeutic response
C. Routine tolerable metallic taste
D. Only mild benign dehydration
Correct Answer: A — Potential airway-compromising angioedema
Rationale: ACE inhibitor angioedema can progress rapidly and warrants emergency care.
4. What is the chief bleeding safety concern when assessing direct oral anticoagulants?
A. Assume reversal is never possible
B. Use INR to adjust every DOAC dose
C. Assess active bleeding, renal function, interactions, and adherence
D. Double a missed dose automatically
Correct Answer: C — Assess active bleeding, renal function, interactions, and adherence
Rationale: DOACs require agent-specific assessment of exposure, renal function, and bleeding risks.
NURS711 | Original educational practice • 1
, INDEPENDENT STUDY RESOURCE • NURS711 • 2026–2027
5. Which assessment is essential before giving prescribed digoxin when indicated?
A. Pulse/rhythm and symptoms, with potassium and renal considerations
B. Only current dietary preference
C. Only the patient's shoe size
D. Only pupillary color
Correct Answer: A — Pulse/rhythm and symptoms, with potassium and renal considerations
Rationale: Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic range, and arrhythmias or electrolyte disturbances increase toxicity
risk.
6. Which laboratory result is especially important with spironolactone?
A. Only liver imaging every day
B. Only total cholesterol once yearly
C. Serum potassium and kidney function
D. Only serum vitamin B12
Correct Answer: C — Serum potassium and kidney function
Rationale: Potassium-sparing effects can cause hyperkalemia, especially with renal impairment or other agents.
7. Which medication combination can trigger severe hypotension?
A. An iron supplement with water
B. A nitrate with a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor
C. A topical emollient with soap
D. A stool softener with dietary fiber
Correct Answer: B — A nitrate with a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor
Rationale: Both nitrates and PDE5 inhibitors enhance vasodilation and can cause profound hypotension together.
8. A patient asks whether leafy greens must be entirely avoided with warfarin. What should the nurse teach?
A. Keep vitamin K intake reasonably consistent
B. Eliminate all vegetables permanently
C. Stop INR follow-up if diet is healthy
D. Eat large unpredictable amounts each day
Correct Answer: A — Keep vitamin K intake reasonably consistent
Rationale: Consistency, rather than complete avoidance, supports stable warfarin anticoagulation.
9. A patient on warfarin asks why INR is checked. Which response is best?
A. It measures blood glucose
B. It diagnoses all clots
C. It helps monitor warfarin's anticoagulant effect
D. It directly measures platelet count
Correct Answer: C — It helps monitor warfarin's anticoagulant effect
Rationale: INR helps guide vitamin K antagonist therapy and bleeding-risk management.
10. A patient prescribed metoprolol has a new heart rate of 43/min and dizziness. What should the nurse do?
A. Withhold the scheduled dose pending prompt assessment and order clarification
NURS711 | Original educational practice • 2
, INDEPENDENT STUDY RESOURCE • NURS711 • 2026–2027
B. Give twice the dose to correct the rate
C. Encourage strenuous exercise immediately
D. Ignore the symptoms as expected
Correct Answer: A — Withhold the scheduled dose pending prompt assessment and order clarification
Rationale: Symptomatic bradycardia is a safety concern with beta blockers and warrants assessment.
11. A patient started a diuretic and complains of nocturia. Which simple counseling may help, when clinically
suitable?
A. Review dosing time and symptoms with the prescriber
B. Discontinue all BP treatment without consultation
C. Avoid all fluids permanently
D. Double the evening dose
Correct Answer: A — Review dosing time and symptoms with the prescriber
Rationale: Adjusting administration timing may reduce nocturia while preserving the diuretic's therapeutic purpose.
12. A patient takes warfarin and a new antimicrobial is prescribed. What should be considered?
A. Check for interactions and arrange appropriate INR monitoring
B. Assume every antibiotic lowers INR
C. Automatically discontinue warfarin permanently
D. Ignore bleeding symptoms
Correct Answer: A — Check for interactions and arrange appropriate INR monitoring
Rationale: Antimicrobials can alter warfarin response; INR and bleeding-risk monitoring should be individualized.
13. A patient takes warfarin and is prescribed a new antibiotic. What should be assessed?
A. Whether antibiotics automatically reverse warfarin
B. Whether the tablet matches the patient's favorite color
C. Potential INR interaction and bleeding risk
D. Whether blood pressure alone replaces INR
Correct Answer: C — Potential INR interaction and bleeding risk
Rationale: Many antibiotics and intercurrent illness can alter anticoagulation; monitoring and medication review are
important.
14. A patient with heart failure takes digoxin and furosemide. Labs show K 2.9 mEq/L and the patient reports halos,
nausea, and palpitations. What is the priority?
A. Continue both drugs without assessment
B. Notify the treating team urgently and evaluate digoxin toxicity and electrolytes
C. Increase exercise
D. Give a large OTC potassium dose without authorization
Correct Answer: B — Notify the treating team urgently and evaluate digoxin toxicity and electrolytes
Rationale: Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity and dysrhythmia.
15. A person on warfarin is prescribed a new antibiotic, and the anticoagulation clinic is not aware. What should the
nurse do?
A. Check for potential interaction and ensure appropriate INR follow-up
NURS711 | Original educational practice • 3
NURS711 — Pharmacotherapies Exam 3 2026–2027
NURS 711 | Pharmacotherapies for Nursing Practice
Institution / scope: University of South Carolina
Contents: 100 independently authored educational practice questions with one keyed answer and a rationale per question;
quick answer key at the end.
Original practice questions
Cardio
1. A patient on warfarin has a new prescription for an interacting medication. What is the priority?
A. Assume INR cannot change
B. Give aspirin automatically
C. Review bleeding risk and the INR-monitoring plan
D. Stop all foods with vitamin K permanently
Correct Answer: C — Review bleeding risk and the INR-monitoring plan
Rationale: Many medications interact with warfarin; INR and bleeding assessment guide management.
2. A patient taking a beta blocker reports new syncope and bradycardia. What should the nurse do?
A. Ignore fainting if medication is scheduled
B. Give a double loading dose
C. Encourage immediate jogging
D. Check hemodynamic status and notify the care team per hold parameters
Correct Answer: D — Check hemodynamic status and notify the care team per hold parameters
Rationale: Symptomatic bradycardia requires assessment and review of the therapeutic plan.
3. An ACE inhibitor user develops lip and tongue swelling. Which concern requires urgent action?
A. Potential airway-compromising angioedema
B. Normal expected therapeutic response
C. Routine tolerable metallic taste
D. Only mild benign dehydration
Correct Answer: A — Potential airway-compromising angioedema
Rationale: ACE inhibitor angioedema can progress rapidly and warrants emergency care.
4. What is the chief bleeding safety concern when assessing direct oral anticoagulants?
A. Assume reversal is never possible
B. Use INR to adjust every DOAC dose
C. Assess active bleeding, renal function, interactions, and adherence
D. Double a missed dose automatically
Correct Answer: C — Assess active bleeding, renal function, interactions, and adherence
Rationale: DOACs require agent-specific assessment of exposure, renal function, and bleeding risks.
NURS711 | Original educational practice • 1
, INDEPENDENT STUDY RESOURCE • NURS711 • 2026–2027
5. Which assessment is essential before giving prescribed digoxin when indicated?
A. Pulse/rhythm and symptoms, with potassium and renal considerations
B. Only current dietary preference
C. Only the patient's shoe size
D. Only pupillary color
Correct Answer: A — Pulse/rhythm and symptoms, with potassium and renal considerations
Rationale: Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic range, and arrhythmias or electrolyte disturbances increase toxicity
risk.
6. Which laboratory result is especially important with spironolactone?
A. Only liver imaging every day
B. Only total cholesterol once yearly
C. Serum potassium and kidney function
D. Only serum vitamin B12
Correct Answer: C — Serum potassium and kidney function
Rationale: Potassium-sparing effects can cause hyperkalemia, especially with renal impairment or other agents.
7. Which medication combination can trigger severe hypotension?
A. An iron supplement with water
B. A nitrate with a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor
C. A topical emollient with soap
D. A stool softener with dietary fiber
Correct Answer: B — A nitrate with a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor
Rationale: Both nitrates and PDE5 inhibitors enhance vasodilation and can cause profound hypotension together.
8. A patient asks whether leafy greens must be entirely avoided with warfarin. What should the nurse teach?
A. Keep vitamin K intake reasonably consistent
B. Eliminate all vegetables permanently
C. Stop INR follow-up if diet is healthy
D. Eat large unpredictable amounts each day
Correct Answer: A — Keep vitamin K intake reasonably consistent
Rationale: Consistency, rather than complete avoidance, supports stable warfarin anticoagulation.
9. A patient on warfarin asks why INR is checked. Which response is best?
A. It measures blood glucose
B. It diagnoses all clots
C. It helps monitor warfarin's anticoagulant effect
D. It directly measures platelet count
Correct Answer: C — It helps monitor warfarin's anticoagulant effect
Rationale: INR helps guide vitamin K antagonist therapy and bleeding-risk management.
10. A patient prescribed metoprolol has a new heart rate of 43/min and dizziness. What should the nurse do?
A. Withhold the scheduled dose pending prompt assessment and order clarification
NURS711 | Original educational practice • 2
, INDEPENDENT STUDY RESOURCE • NURS711 • 2026–2027
B. Give twice the dose to correct the rate
C. Encourage strenuous exercise immediately
D. Ignore the symptoms as expected
Correct Answer: A — Withhold the scheduled dose pending prompt assessment and order clarification
Rationale: Symptomatic bradycardia is a safety concern with beta blockers and warrants assessment.
11. A patient started a diuretic and complains of nocturia. Which simple counseling may help, when clinically
suitable?
A. Review dosing time and symptoms with the prescriber
B. Discontinue all BP treatment without consultation
C. Avoid all fluids permanently
D. Double the evening dose
Correct Answer: A — Review dosing time and symptoms with the prescriber
Rationale: Adjusting administration timing may reduce nocturia while preserving the diuretic's therapeutic purpose.
12. A patient takes warfarin and a new antimicrobial is prescribed. What should be considered?
A. Check for interactions and arrange appropriate INR monitoring
B. Assume every antibiotic lowers INR
C. Automatically discontinue warfarin permanently
D. Ignore bleeding symptoms
Correct Answer: A — Check for interactions and arrange appropriate INR monitoring
Rationale: Antimicrobials can alter warfarin response; INR and bleeding-risk monitoring should be individualized.
13. A patient takes warfarin and is prescribed a new antibiotic. What should be assessed?
A. Whether antibiotics automatically reverse warfarin
B. Whether the tablet matches the patient's favorite color
C. Potential INR interaction and bleeding risk
D. Whether blood pressure alone replaces INR
Correct Answer: C — Potential INR interaction and bleeding risk
Rationale: Many antibiotics and intercurrent illness can alter anticoagulation; monitoring and medication review are
important.
14. A patient with heart failure takes digoxin and furosemide. Labs show K 2.9 mEq/L and the patient reports halos,
nausea, and palpitations. What is the priority?
A. Continue both drugs without assessment
B. Notify the treating team urgently and evaluate digoxin toxicity and electrolytes
C. Increase exercise
D. Give a large OTC potassium dose without authorization
Correct Answer: B — Notify the treating team urgently and evaluate digoxin toxicity and electrolytes
Rationale: Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity and dysrhythmia.
15. A person on warfarin is prescribed a new antibiotic, and the anticoagulation clinic is not aware. What should the
nurse do?
A. Check for potential interaction and ensure appropriate INR follow-up
NURS711 | Original educational practice • 3
