INDEPENDENT STUDY RESOURCE • NURS711 • 2026–2027
NURS711 — Pharmacotherapies Exam 1 2026–2027
NURS 711 | Pharmacotherapies for Nursing Practice
Institution / scope: University of South Carolina
Contents: 100 independently authored educational practice questions with one keyed answer and a rationale per question;
quick answer key at the end.
Original practice questions
Cardio
1. A patient taking a beta blocker reports new syncope and bradycardia. What should the nurse do?
A. Ignore fainting if medication is scheduled
B. Give a double loading dose
C. Encourage immediate jogging
D. Check hemodynamic status and notify the care team per hold parameters
Correct Answer: D — Check hemodynamic status and notify the care team per hold parameters
Rationale: Symptomatic bradycardia requires assessment and review of the therapeutic plan.
2. An ACE inhibitor user develops lip and tongue swelling. Which concern requires urgent action?
A. Potential airway-compromising angioedema
B. Normal expected therapeutic response
C. Routine tolerable metallic taste
D. Only mild benign dehydration
Correct Answer: A — Potential airway-compromising angioedema
Rationale: ACE inhibitor angioedema can progress rapidly and warrants emergency care.
3. A patient takes warfarin and is prescribed a new antibiotic. What should be assessed?
A. Whether antibiotics automatically reverse warfarin
B. Whether the tablet matches the patient's favorite color
C. Potential INR interaction and bleeding risk
D. Whether blood pressure alone replaces INR
Correct Answer: C — Potential INR interaction and bleeding risk
Rationale: Many antibiotics and intercurrent illness can alter anticoagulation; monitoring and medication review are
important.
4. Why is renal function evaluated before or during use of some direct oral anticoagulants?
A. Renal function has no effect on any DOAC
B. All DOACs are titrated by a daily INR
C. Renal function is used only to judge inhaler technique
D. Impaired clearance may alter anticoagulant exposure and drug selection or dosing
Correct Answer: D — Impaired clearance may alter anticoagulant exposure and drug selection or dosing
Rationale: Some DOACs require dose or agent considerations based on kidney function.
NURS711 | Original educational practice • 1
, INDEPENDENT STUDY RESOURCE • NURS711 • 2026–2027
Endocrine
5. A patient with diabetes is unable to swallow and has severe hypoglycemia. What is the appropriate priority?
A. Administer extra rapid insulin
B. Force oral juice into the mouth
C. Wait for spontaneous improvement without assessment
D. Activate emergency treatment with IV dextrose or glucagon as available and ordered
Correct Answer: D — Activate emergency treatment with IV dextrose or glucagon as available and ordered
Rationale: An unconscious or unable-to-swallow patient needs parenteral rescue and airway protection, not oral
intake.
Principles
6. A breastfeeding patient asks about hormonal contraception soon after delivery. What is best?
A. Avoid considering venous thromboembolism risk
B. Use postpartum timing and individual risk factors to choose an eligible method
C. Always prescribe combined estrogen immediately
D. Assume all hormonal methods have identical eligibility
Correct Answer: B — Use postpartum timing and individual risk factors to choose an eligible method
Rationale: Postpartum eligibility differs by method, breastfeeding, and thrombosis risk under US MEC guidance.
7. A child is prescribed a liquid medication. Which technique most reduces a dosing error?
A. Estimate by the child's height alone
B. Use the ordered mg dose, concentration, and an oral syringe in mL
C. Recommend a household tablespoon
D. Rely on bottle-cap volume
Correct Answer: B — Use the ordered mg dose, concentration, and an oral syringe in mL
Rationale: Weight-appropriate dosing and standardized metric devices reduce pediatric medication errors.
8. A drug has a narrow therapeutic index. Which nursing practice is especially important?
A. Use only brand-name products
B. Monitor levels or response and signs of toxicity as indicated
C. Assume twice the dose is safe
D. Skip interaction checks
Correct Answer: B — Monitor levels or response and signs of toxicity as indicated
Rationale: A small margin separates beneficial from toxic exposure, so monitoring and interaction awareness
matter.
9. A febrile patient has flank pain, nausea, and suspected pyelonephritis. Which statement about nitrofurantoin is
correct?
A. It is not appropriate to treat renal parenchymal infection
B. It always replaces culture testing
C. It is ideal for renal tissue infection
D. It cures renal abscesses by topical action
Correct Answer: A — It is not appropriate to treat renal parenchymal infection
Rationale: Nitrofurantoin achieves high urine but inadequate renal tissue concentrations for pyelonephritis.
NURS711 | Original educational practice • 2
, INDEPENDENT STUDY RESOURCE • NURS711 • 2026–2027
10. A high-risk patient with influenza symptoms presents early in illness. Which treatment is considered when
indicated?
A. Prompt influenza antiviral treatment such as oseltamivir
B. Fluconazole
C. Topical clindamycin
D. Amoxicillin for the virus alone
Correct Answer: A — Prompt influenza antiviral treatment such as oseltamivir
Rationale: Antiviral benefit is greatest when started promptly, particularly in high-risk or severe influenza.
11. A man starting tamsulosin for BPH should be warned about which adverse effect?
A. Severe hypoglycemia in all users
B. Permanent antibiotic resistance
C. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension
D. Immediate liver failure in every patient
Correct Answer: C — Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension
Rationale: Alpha-1 blockers relax smooth muscle to improve flow but may lower blood pressure and cause dizziness.
12. A patient begins an atypical antipsychotic. Which routine monitoring is important?
A. No adverse-effect assessment
B. Only hearing acuity
C. Weight, metabolic risk, glucose, and lipid parameters
D. Only daily stool color
Correct Answer: C — Weight, metabolic risk, glucose, and lipid parameters
Rationale: Second-generation antipsychotics may cause metabolic complications requiring baseline and follow-up
assessment.
13. A patient has a documented anaphylactic reaction to penicillin and is prescribed amoxicillin. What should the
prescriber do first?
A. Add diphenhydramine and continue amoxicillin
B. Administer a test dose at home
C. Ignore the history because it is old
D. Clarify the allergy and select an appropriate alternative
Correct Answer: D — Clarify the allergy and select an appropriate alternative
Rationale: A credible history of immediate anaphylaxis warrants avoiding the implicated beta-lactam pending
appropriate allergy evaluation; treatment must be individualized.
14. A patient has heavy menstrual bleeding and wants long-term contraception. Which treatment may improve both
issues?
A. An alpha blocker for BPH
B. A one-time antibiotic for all causes
C. A topical antifungal
D. A levonorgestrel intrauterine system after appropriate evaluation
Correct Answer: D — A levonorgestrel intrauterine system after appropriate evaluation
NURS711 | Original educational practice • 3
NURS711 — Pharmacotherapies Exam 1 2026–2027
NURS 711 | Pharmacotherapies for Nursing Practice
Institution / scope: University of South Carolina
Contents: 100 independently authored educational practice questions with one keyed answer and a rationale per question;
quick answer key at the end.
Original practice questions
Cardio
1. A patient taking a beta blocker reports new syncope and bradycardia. What should the nurse do?
A. Ignore fainting if medication is scheduled
B. Give a double loading dose
C. Encourage immediate jogging
D. Check hemodynamic status and notify the care team per hold parameters
Correct Answer: D — Check hemodynamic status and notify the care team per hold parameters
Rationale: Symptomatic bradycardia requires assessment and review of the therapeutic plan.
2. An ACE inhibitor user develops lip and tongue swelling. Which concern requires urgent action?
A. Potential airway-compromising angioedema
B. Normal expected therapeutic response
C. Routine tolerable metallic taste
D. Only mild benign dehydration
Correct Answer: A — Potential airway-compromising angioedema
Rationale: ACE inhibitor angioedema can progress rapidly and warrants emergency care.
3. A patient takes warfarin and is prescribed a new antibiotic. What should be assessed?
A. Whether antibiotics automatically reverse warfarin
B. Whether the tablet matches the patient's favorite color
C. Potential INR interaction and bleeding risk
D. Whether blood pressure alone replaces INR
Correct Answer: C — Potential INR interaction and bleeding risk
Rationale: Many antibiotics and intercurrent illness can alter anticoagulation; monitoring and medication review are
important.
4. Why is renal function evaluated before or during use of some direct oral anticoagulants?
A. Renal function has no effect on any DOAC
B. All DOACs are titrated by a daily INR
C. Renal function is used only to judge inhaler technique
D. Impaired clearance may alter anticoagulant exposure and drug selection or dosing
Correct Answer: D — Impaired clearance may alter anticoagulant exposure and drug selection or dosing
Rationale: Some DOACs require dose or agent considerations based on kidney function.
NURS711 | Original educational practice • 1
, INDEPENDENT STUDY RESOURCE • NURS711 • 2026–2027
Endocrine
5. A patient with diabetes is unable to swallow and has severe hypoglycemia. What is the appropriate priority?
A. Administer extra rapid insulin
B. Force oral juice into the mouth
C. Wait for spontaneous improvement without assessment
D. Activate emergency treatment with IV dextrose or glucagon as available and ordered
Correct Answer: D — Activate emergency treatment with IV dextrose or glucagon as available and ordered
Rationale: An unconscious or unable-to-swallow patient needs parenteral rescue and airway protection, not oral
intake.
Principles
6. A breastfeeding patient asks about hormonal contraception soon after delivery. What is best?
A. Avoid considering venous thromboembolism risk
B. Use postpartum timing and individual risk factors to choose an eligible method
C. Always prescribe combined estrogen immediately
D. Assume all hormonal methods have identical eligibility
Correct Answer: B — Use postpartum timing and individual risk factors to choose an eligible method
Rationale: Postpartum eligibility differs by method, breastfeeding, and thrombosis risk under US MEC guidance.
7. A child is prescribed a liquid medication. Which technique most reduces a dosing error?
A. Estimate by the child's height alone
B. Use the ordered mg dose, concentration, and an oral syringe in mL
C. Recommend a household tablespoon
D. Rely on bottle-cap volume
Correct Answer: B — Use the ordered mg dose, concentration, and an oral syringe in mL
Rationale: Weight-appropriate dosing and standardized metric devices reduce pediatric medication errors.
8. A drug has a narrow therapeutic index. Which nursing practice is especially important?
A. Use only brand-name products
B. Monitor levels or response and signs of toxicity as indicated
C. Assume twice the dose is safe
D. Skip interaction checks
Correct Answer: B — Monitor levels or response and signs of toxicity as indicated
Rationale: A small margin separates beneficial from toxic exposure, so monitoring and interaction awareness
matter.
9. A febrile patient has flank pain, nausea, and suspected pyelonephritis. Which statement about nitrofurantoin is
correct?
A. It is not appropriate to treat renal parenchymal infection
B. It always replaces culture testing
C. It is ideal for renal tissue infection
D. It cures renal abscesses by topical action
Correct Answer: A — It is not appropriate to treat renal parenchymal infection
Rationale: Nitrofurantoin achieves high urine but inadequate renal tissue concentrations for pyelonephritis.
NURS711 | Original educational practice • 2
, INDEPENDENT STUDY RESOURCE • NURS711 • 2026–2027
10. A high-risk patient with influenza symptoms presents early in illness. Which treatment is considered when
indicated?
A. Prompt influenza antiviral treatment such as oseltamivir
B. Fluconazole
C. Topical clindamycin
D. Amoxicillin for the virus alone
Correct Answer: A — Prompt influenza antiviral treatment such as oseltamivir
Rationale: Antiviral benefit is greatest when started promptly, particularly in high-risk or severe influenza.
11. A man starting tamsulosin for BPH should be warned about which adverse effect?
A. Severe hypoglycemia in all users
B. Permanent antibiotic resistance
C. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension
D. Immediate liver failure in every patient
Correct Answer: C — Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension
Rationale: Alpha-1 blockers relax smooth muscle to improve flow but may lower blood pressure and cause dizziness.
12. A patient begins an atypical antipsychotic. Which routine monitoring is important?
A. No adverse-effect assessment
B. Only hearing acuity
C. Weight, metabolic risk, glucose, and lipid parameters
D. Only daily stool color
Correct Answer: C — Weight, metabolic risk, glucose, and lipid parameters
Rationale: Second-generation antipsychotics may cause metabolic complications requiring baseline and follow-up
assessment.
13. A patient has a documented anaphylactic reaction to penicillin and is prescribed amoxicillin. What should the
prescriber do first?
A. Add diphenhydramine and continue amoxicillin
B. Administer a test dose at home
C. Ignore the history because it is old
D. Clarify the allergy and select an appropriate alternative
Correct Answer: D — Clarify the allergy and select an appropriate alternative
Rationale: A credible history of immediate anaphylaxis warrants avoiding the implicated beta-lactam pending
appropriate allergy evaluation; treatment must be individualized.
14. A patient has heavy menstrual bleeding and wants long-term contraception. Which treatment may improve both
issues?
A. An alpha blocker for BPH
B. A one-time antibiotic for all causes
C. A topical antifungal
D. A levonorgestrel intrauterine system after appropriate evaluation
Correct Answer: D — A levonorgestrel intrauterine system after appropriate evaluation
NURS711 | Original educational practice • 3
