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Exam (elaborations)

Fundamentals of Nursing Practice Questions | Multiple Choice with Answers & Rationales 2027/2028 (148 Questions)

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Fundamentals of Nursing Practice Questions | Multiple Choice with Answers & Rationales 2027/2028 (148 Questions)

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Fundamentals of Nursing Practice
Questions | Multiple Choice with Answers &
Rationales 2027/2028
Practice Question Bank & Answer Rationale




THIS PACK CONTAINS
148 exam-style multiple-choice questions. Each question includes the correct answer and a complete
rationale for focused revision.




COVERAGE
This exam assesses foundational nursing knowledge across the nursing process, vital signs, asepsis and
infection control, patient safety, medication administration principles, wound care, mobility, fluid and electrolyte
balance, oxygenation, elimination, perioperative care, communication and documentation, and ethical/legal
practice. Questions are aligned with the NCLEX-RN Next Generation Test Plan (2026) and QSEN
competencies, emphasizing clinical judgment, evidence-based practice, and patient-centered care.




STUDY GUIDE
Recommended duration: 90 minutes. Passing target: 75% (minimum 38/50 correct).




HIGHP - Page 1 of 45

,1. Which phase of the nursing process involves collecting patient information?

[ ] A. Planning
[ ] B. Assessment
[ ] C. Implementation
[ ] D. Evaluation


CORRECT: B. Assessment
Assessment is the first step of the nursing process, during which the nurse gathers subjective and objective
data from the patient, family, and healthcare team. Planning involves setting goals, implementation is carrying
out interventions, and evaluation determines whether goals were met. Therefore, assessment is the correct
phase for data collection.



2. What is the normal resting respiratory rate for a healthy adult?

[ ] A. 6-10 breaths/min
[ ] B. 12-20 breaths/min
[ ] C. 22-30 breaths/min
[ ] D. 30-40 breaths/min


CORRECT: B. 12-20 breaths/min
The normal adult resting respiratory rate is 12-20 breaths per minute, reflecting adequate alveolar ventilation.
Rates below 12 indicate bradypnea, while rates above 20 indicate tachypnea. The other ranges are outside
normal adult parameters and would prompt further assessment.



3. What is the primary purpose of hand hygiene in healthcare?

[ ] A. To prevent the transmission of microorganisms
[ ] B. To replace the need for gloves
[ ] C. To eliminate all microorganisms permanently
[ ] D. To prevent every type of infection completely


CORRECT: A. To prevent the transmission of microorganisms
Hand hygiene is the single most effective measure to reduce healthcare-associated infections by removing
transient microorganisms and preventing cross-transmission. It does not sterilize hands, eliminate all flora
permanently, or replace gloves, which are still required for contact with body fluids. Complete prevention of all
infections is not achievable through hand hygiene alone.



4. Which technique is used to maintain a sterile field during a surgical procedure?

[ ] A. Medical asepsis
[ ] B. Surgical asepsis
[ ] C. Routine cleaning
[ ] D. General hygiene



HIGHP - Page 2 of 45

, CORRECT: B. Surgical asepsis
Surgical asepsis (sterile technique) involves practices that eliminate all microorganisms from objects and
areas, maintaining a sterile field during invasive procedures. Medical asepsis reduces but does not eliminate
microorganisms, and routine cleaning or general hygiene are insufficient for sterile procedures. Only surgical
asepsis meets the standard for maintaining sterility.



5. Which vital sign should be assessed before administering a prescribed beta blocker?

[ ] A. Height
[ ] B. Heart rate and blood pressure
[ ] C. Visual acuity
[ ] D. Abdominal circumference


CORRECT: B. Heart rate and blood pressure
Beta blockers lower heart rate and blood pressure; therefore, the nurse must assess apical heart rate and
blood pressure before administration to avoid inducing bradycardia or hypotension. Height, visual acuity, and
abdominal circumference are unrelated to the immediate effects of beta blockers. Withholding the medication
may be necessary if parameters are outside prescribed limits.



6. Which position generally helps a patient experiencing breathing difficulty?

[ ] A. Flat supine
[ ] B. Trendelenburg
[ ] C. High Fowler's
[ ] D. Prone


CORRECT: C. High Fowler's
High Fowler's position elevates the head of the bed 60-90 degrees, promoting lung expansion by allowing
gravity to pull the diaphragm downward and improving ventilation. Flat supine and Trendelenburg positions
can worsen dyspnea by increasing venous return and compressing the diaphragm. Prone positioning is used
in specific critical care scenarios but is not the general first-line position for breathing difficulty.



7. Which finding may indicate fluid volume excess?

[ ] A. Dry mucous membranes
[ ] B. Peripheral edema
[ ] C. Poor skin turgor
[ ] D. Decreased urine output alone


CORRECT: B. Peripheral edema
Peripheral edema is a classic sign of fluid volume excess due to increased hydrostatic pressure and fluid
shifting into interstitial spaces. Dry mucous membranes and poor skin turgor indicate dehydration, while
decreased urine output alone can occur in various conditions and is not specific to excess. Therefore, edema




HIGHP - Page 3 of 45

, is the most reliable indicator among the choices.



8. What is the most appropriate action before transferring a patient for surgery?

[ ] A. Verify patient identity and the planned procedure
[ ] B. Remove the patient's identification band
[ ] C. Give food and water routinely
[ ] D. Skip the preoperative checklist


CORRECT: A. Verify patient identity and the planned procedure
Verifying patient identity and the planned procedure using at least two identifiers is a Joint Commission
National Patient Safety Goal and prevents wrong-site, wrong-patient surgery. Removing the identification
band, giving food or water without an order (risk of aspiration), and skipping the checklist all compromise
safety. The preoperative checklist must be completed to ensure all preparations are met.



9. Which intervention helps reduce the risk of pressure injuries in an immobile patient?

[ ] A. Keep the skin moist at all times
[ ] B. Massage reddened bony areas vigorously
[ ] C. Reposition regularly and assess the skin
[ ] D. Avoid inspecting the patient's skin


CORRECT: C. Reposition regularly and assess the skin
Regular repositioning (typically every 2 hours) and systematic skin assessment are cornerstone interventions
to prevent pressure injuries by relieving pressure and identifying early damage. Massaging reddened areas
can cause further tissue damage, and keeping skin overly moist promotes maceration. Avoiding skin
inspection would delay detection and is unsafe.



10. What should a nurse do first when a patient suddenly becomes unresponsive?

[ ] A. Offer oral fluids
[ ] B. Assess responsiveness and breathing, and activate emergency assistance
[ ] C. Leave the patient alone
[ ] D. Complete routine documentation


CORRECT: B. Assess responsiveness and breathing, and activate emergency assistance
The first priority in an unresponsive patient is to assess responsiveness and breathing and to activate the
emergency response system (e.g., call a code) to initiate life-saving measures. Offering oral fluids is
dangerous in an unresponsive patient due to aspiration risk. Leaving the patient alone or documenting before
addressing the emergency would delay critical care.




HIGHP - Page 4 of 45

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