ADVANCED MEDICAL CODING AND
ABSTRACTING - YOU CODE IT!
PRACTICUM QUESTIONS WITH
VERIFIED ANSWERS 2026/2027
1. According to UHDDS guidelines, what is the definition of the ‘Principal Diagnosis’?
A. The first symptom reported by the patient upon arrival at the emergency department.
B. The condition that represents the highest cost of resources during the patient’s hospital
stay.
C. The condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the
admission of the patient to the hospital for care.
D. The most severe life-threatening condition documented by the physician in the progress
notes.
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set (UHDDS) defines the
principal diagnosis as the condition determined after study to be the reason for admission.
2. When abstracting a case where a patient has both an acute and a chronic condition and
there are separate codes for both, how should they be sequenced?
A. The acute code is always sequenced first.
,B. The chronic code is always sequenced first.
C. They are sequenced alphabetically based on the ICD-10-CM description.
D. Only the acute code is reported; the chronic code is ignored.
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines state that if the same condition is
described as both acute and chronic, and separate subentries exist, the acute code is
sequenced first.
3. In ICD-10-PCS, which root operation is used when a physician cuts out a portion of a body
part without replacement?
A. Resection
B. Excision
C. Extraction
D. Destruction
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Excision is defined as cutting out or off, without replacement, a
portion of a body part. Resection involves the entire body part.
4. When a patient presents for chemotherapy for a primary malignancy of the lung, which
code should be sequenced as the principal diagnosis?
A. The code for the lung malignancy.
, B. The code for the symptoms of the malignancy.
C. Z85.118 (Personal history of malignant neoplasm of bronchus and lung).
D. Z51.11 (Encounter for antineoplastic chemotherapy).
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Per ICD-10-CM guidelines, if a patient admission is solely for
administration of chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or radiation therapy, the ‘encounter for’
code (Z51.-) is sequenced first.
5. Which CPT modifier is used to indicate that a procedure was discontinued after the
administration of anesthesia due to a threat to the patient’s well-being?
A. Modifier 53
B. Modifier 52
C. Modifier 73
D. Modifier 74
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Modifier 53 is used for discontinued procedures under physician
or other qualified healthcare professional’s discretion due to patient safety after
anesthesia.
6. In medical abstracting, what is the ‘Chief Complaint’?
A. The physician’s final diagnosis at discharge.
ABSTRACTING - YOU CODE IT!
PRACTICUM QUESTIONS WITH
VERIFIED ANSWERS 2026/2027
1. According to UHDDS guidelines, what is the definition of the ‘Principal Diagnosis’?
A. The first symptom reported by the patient upon arrival at the emergency department.
B. The condition that represents the highest cost of resources during the patient’s hospital
stay.
C. The condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the
admission of the patient to the hospital for care.
D. The most severe life-threatening condition documented by the physician in the progress
notes.
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set (UHDDS) defines the
principal diagnosis as the condition determined after study to be the reason for admission.
2. When abstracting a case where a patient has both an acute and a chronic condition and
there are separate codes for both, how should they be sequenced?
A. The acute code is always sequenced first.
,B. The chronic code is always sequenced first.
C. They are sequenced alphabetically based on the ICD-10-CM description.
D. Only the acute code is reported; the chronic code is ignored.
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines state that if the same condition is
described as both acute and chronic, and separate subentries exist, the acute code is
sequenced first.
3. In ICD-10-PCS, which root operation is used when a physician cuts out a portion of a body
part without replacement?
A. Resection
B. Excision
C. Extraction
D. Destruction
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Excision is defined as cutting out or off, without replacement, a
portion of a body part. Resection involves the entire body part.
4. When a patient presents for chemotherapy for a primary malignancy of the lung, which
code should be sequenced as the principal diagnosis?
A. The code for the lung malignancy.
, B. The code for the symptoms of the malignancy.
C. Z85.118 (Personal history of malignant neoplasm of bronchus and lung).
D. Z51.11 (Encounter for antineoplastic chemotherapy).
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Per ICD-10-CM guidelines, if a patient admission is solely for
administration of chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or radiation therapy, the ‘encounter for’
code (Z51.-) is sequenced first.
5. Which CPT modifier is used to indicate that a procedure was discontinued after the
administration of anesthesia due to a threat to the patient’s well-being?
A. Modifier 53
B. Modifier 52
C. Modifier 73
D. Modifier 74
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Modifier 53 is used for discontinued procedures under physician
or other qualified healthcare professional’s discretion due to patient safety after
anesthesia.
6. In medical abstracting, what is the ‘Chief Complaint’?
A. The physician’s final diagnosis at discharge.
