PN Maternal Newborn 2026 (OB) Proctored Assessment Chamberlain University
This ATI PN Maternal Newborn 2026 Proctored Exam Test Bank offers unique
multiple-choice questions with verified answers and detailed expert rationales. It
thoroughly covers critical nursing domains including antepartum, intrapartum,
postpartum, and newborn care, ensuring readiness for the Next Generation NCLEX
format. Ideal for LPN/LVN students at Chamberlain, Rasmussen, and other
institutions looking to secure a top score on their final ATI proctored exam.
Section 1: Antepartum Care & Complications (Questions 1–60)
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and has
hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following manifestations should the
nurse expect?
A. Pruritus.
B. Decreased BP.
C. WBC count 15,000/mm³ (5,000 to 15,000/mm³).
D. Hemoglobin 18 g/dL (11 to 16 g/dL).
D. Hemoglobin 18 g/dL (11 to 16 g/dL).
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum causes severe nausea and vomiting,
leading to dehydration and hemoconcentration. This results in an elevated
hemoglobin and hematocrit level. A WBC of 15,000 is a normal finding in
pregnancy, and while BP can decrease, hemoconcentration is a classic
manifestation of severe dehydration.
,2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has
placenta previa. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Perform a vaginal exam to check for dilation.
B. Assess maternal vital signs and fetal heart rate.
C. Encourage the client to ambulate.
D. Administer a tocolytic medication.
B. Assess maternal vital signs and fetal heart rate.
Rationale: The priority is to assess both mother and fetus. Vaginal exams
are strictly contraindicated with placenta previa, as they can cause fatal
hemorrhage.
3. A client who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with painful, dark red vaginal
bleeding and a rigid, board-like abdomen. Which condition should the nurse
suspect?
A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Uterine rupture
D. Vasa previa
B. Abruptio placentae
Rationale: Abruptio placentae (placental abruption) typically presents with
painful, dark red bleeding and a rigid abdomen due to blood accumulating
behind the placenta.
4. A client at 34 weeks of gestation is receiving magnesium sulfate for
preeclampsia. Which finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
A. Respiratory rate of 14/min.
B. Deep tendon reflexes 2+.
,C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
D. Urine output of 40 mL/hr.
C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
Rationale: Loss of deep tendon reflexes is an early sign of magnesium
toxicity. The nurse should stop the infusion and notify the provider
immediately. The antidote is calcium gluconate.
5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client at 8 weeks of gestation about
folic acid. What is the primary purpose of folic acid supplementation?
A. To prevent gestational diabetes.
B. To prevent neural tube defects.
C. To increase maternal iron stores.
D. To reduce the risk of preeclampsia.
B. To prevent neural tube defects.
Rationale: Folic acid is crucial for the development of the fetal neural tube,
which closes within the first 28 days of conception. It is recommended to
start before conception and continue through the first trimester.
6. A client with gestational diabetes is at risk for which fetal complication?
A. Microcephaly
B. Macrosomia
C. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
D. Oligohydramnios
B. Macrosomia
, *Rationale: Excess maternal glucose crosses the placenta, causing fetal
hyperinsulinemia, which acts as a growth factor and leads to macrosomia
(large for gestational age). *
7. A client who is Rh-negative gives birth to an Rh-positive newborn. When
should the nurse administer RhoGAM?
A. Immediately after delivery.
B. 24 hours after delivery.
C. Within 72 hours after delivery.
D. 1 week after delivery.
C. Within 72 hours after delivery.
Rationale: RhoGAM must be administered within 72 hours of delivery to
prevent maternal sensitization to Rh-positive fetal blood cells.
8. A client is diagnosed with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which finding is
the priority?
A. Shoulder pain.
B. Vaginal spotting.
C. Hypotension and tachycardia.
D. Mild abdominal cramping.
C. Hypotension and tachycardia.
Rationale: A ruptured ectopic pregnancy is a medical emergency causing
internal hemorrhage. Hypotension and tachycardia are signs of hypovolemic
shock.
9. A nurse is teaching a client at 28 weeks of gestation about daily fetal
movement counts (kick counts). Which instruction should the nurse include?
This ATI PN Maternal Newborn 2026 Proctored Exam Test Bank offers unique
multiple-choice questions with verified answers and detailed expert rationales. It
thoroughly covers critical nursing domains including antepartum, intrapartum,
postpartum, and newborn care, ensuring readiness for the Next Generation NCLEX
format. Ideal for LPN/LVN students at Chamberlain, Rasmussen, and other
institutions looking to secure a top score on their final ATI proctored exam.
Section 1: Antepartum Care & Complications (Questions 1–60)
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and has
hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following manifestations should the
nurse expect?
A. Pruritus.
B. Decreased BP.
C. WBC count 15,000/mm³ (5,000 to 15,000/mm³).
D. Hemoglobin 18 g/dL (11 to 16 g/dL).
D. Hemoglobin 18 g/dL (11 to 16 g/dL).
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum causes severe nausea and vomiting,
leading to dehydration and hemoconcentration. This results in an elevated
hemoglobin and hematocrit level. A WBC of 15,000 is a normal finding in
pregnancy, and while BP can decrease, hemoconcentration is a classic
manifestation of severe dehydration.
,2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has
placenta previa. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Perform a vaginal exam to check for dilation.
B. Assess maternal vital signs and fetal heart rate.
C. Encourage the client to ambulate.
D. Administer a tocolytic medication.
B. Assess maternal vital signs and fetal heart rate.
Rationale: The priority is to assess both mother and fetus. Vaginal exams
are strictly contraindicated with placenta previa, as they can cause fatal
hemorrhage.
3. A client who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with painful, dark red vaginal
bleeding and a rigid, board-like abdomen. Which condition should the nurse
suspect?
A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Uterine rupture
D. Vasa previa
B. Abruptio placentae
Rationale: Abruptio placentae (placental abruption) typically presents with
painful, dark red bleeding and a rigid abdomen due to blood accumulating
behind the placenta.
4. A client at 34 weeks of gestation is receiving magnesium sulfate for
preeclampsia. Which finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
A. Respiratory rate of 14/min.
B. Deep tendon reflexes 2+.
,C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
D. Urine output of 40 mL/hr.
C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
Rationale: Loss of deep tendon reflexes is an early sign of magnesium
toxicity. The nurse should stop the infusion and notify the provider
immediately. The antidote is calcium gluconate.
5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client at 8 weeks of gestation about
folic acid. What is the primary purpose of folic acid supplementation?
A. To prevent gestational diabetes.
B. To prevent neural tube defects.
C. To increase maternal iron stores.
D. To reduce the risk of preeclampsia.
B. To prevent neural tube defects.
Rationale: Folic acid is crucial for the development of the fetal neural tube,
which closes within the first 28 days of conception. It is recommended to
start before conception and continue through the first trimester.
6. A client with gestational diabetes is at risk for which fetal complication?
A. Microcephaly
B. Macrosomia
C. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
D. Oligohydramnios
B. Macrosomia
, *Rationale: Excess maternal glucose crosses the placenta, causing fetal
hyperinsulinemia, which acts as a growth factor and leads to macrosomia
(large for gestational age). *
7. A client who is Rh-negative gives birth to an Rh-positive newborn. When
should the nurse administer RhoGAM?
A. Immediately after delivery.
B. 24 hours after delivery.
C. Within 72 hours after delivery.
D. 1 week after delivery.
C. Within 72 hours after delivery.
Rationale: RhoGAM must be administered within 72 hours of delivery to
prevent maternal sensitization to Rh-positive fetal blood cells.
8. A client is diagnosed with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which finding is
the priority?
A. Shoulder pain.
B. Vaginal spotting.
C. Hypotension and tachycardia.
D. Mild abdominal cramping.
C. Hypotension and tachycardia.
Rationale: A ruptured ectopic pregnancy is a medical emergency causing
internal hemorrhage. Hypotension and tachycardia are signs of hypovolemic
shock.
9. A nurse is teaching a client at 28 weeks of gestation about daily fetal
movement counts (kick counts). Which instruction should the nurse include?
