NSG6435 WEEK 1 QUIZ, NSG6435 WEEK 2 QUIZ, NSG6435 WEEK 3 QUIZ, NSG6435 WEEK 4 QUIZ, NSG6435 WEEK 6 QUIZ, NSG6435 WEEK 7 QUIZ, NSG6435 WEEK 8 QUIZ, NSG6435 WEEK 9 QUIZ (LATEST-2021): SOUTH UNIVERSITY

NSG6435 WEEK 1 QUIZ, NSG6435 WEEK 2 QUIZ, NSG6435 WEEK 3 QUIZ, NSG6435 WEEK 4 QUIZ, NSG6435 WEEK 6 QUIZ, NSG6435 WEEK 7 QUIZ, NSG6435 WEEK 8 QUIZ, NSG6435 WEEK 9 QUIZ (LATEST-2021): SOUTH UNIVERSITY NSG 6435 Week 1 Quiz Question 1 (1 point) What should a cultural assessment of the family and child include? Question 1 options: An assessment of a patient’s dominant culture including the accompanying health beliefs, and beliefs about birth, illness, and deaths. An assessment of potential biologic variations that occur in people of a particular race An assessment of whether the child and family have sought care from a traditional healer, and advise them to avoid such healers Question 2 (1 point) What is an example of a question regarding internal structure of the family? Question 2 options: Has anyone recently moved in or out? If so, how has this move affected the family? Do both parents of the family live at home? If not, where do they live? How often do the children have contact with the parent or parents who do not live at home? How often is there contact with the extended family (e.g. aunts, uncles)? Question 3 (1 point) “Culture is a social construction of the relationships within and among groups of human beings. . .” Which of the following is not a part of the products of culture? Question 3 options: race religion class geography none of the above Question 4 (1 point) Exposure to which of the following during childhood can be associated with increased aggressive behavior, emotional problems such as depression and anxiety, and poorer school performance? Question 4 options: mumps second-hand smoke domestic violence immunizations immigrants Question 5 (1 point) Which of the following delineates the role of the APN in Health Care most accurately? Question 5 options: code all of the primary and differential diagnoses order labs and diagnostics for every patient provide continuity of care for underserved populations at greater risk for ambulatory care make sure that every chart has a growth chart Whatever the doctor tells her/him to do NSG 6435 Week 2 Quiz Question 1 Which of the following is considered a developmental red flag? (choose the best answer) Incorrect pronoun use Difficulty sharing Speech less than 75% unintelligible Loss of milestones Question 2 What would be the most likely weight of a 1-year-old child whose weight at birth was 7 pounds? Question 2 options: 20-23 pounds 16-19 pounds 14-17 pounds 25-28 pounds Question 3 The pincer grasp is a fine motor skill that involves the ability to pick up a small object such as cold cereal, with the thumb and forefinger. When is this usually mastered? 16 months 9 months 6 months 4 months Question 4 The nurse practitioner is completing an examination of an 11-year-old female. It is noted during inspection that there is an appearance of breast buds. Which of the following would most likely occur in approximately 2 years? Onset of menses Axillary hair Growth of pubic hair Peak height velocity Question 5 When reviewing immunization protocols at your clinic, the nurse practitioner should be aware that the varicella vaccine can be administered at what age? 4 months 6 months 12 months 15 months NSG6435 Week 3 Quiz Question 1 What age do children usually begin receiving the human papillomavirus vaccine (HPV)? 8 years 11 years 13 years 15 years Hide Feedback 11 years is the age most providers begin administering the HPV vaccine. Question 2 1 / 1 point Question 2 When can a child stop using a booster seat in the car? When the child is at least 4’9” tall. When the child is at least 5’ tall. When the child is at least 4’ tall. When the child is at least 3’ tall. Hide Feedback A child should be at least 4’9” before discontinuing the use of the booster seat. Question 3 1 / 1 point Question 3 A 13-year-old client diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis 2 weeks ago is in your office today c/o abdominal pain to the upper left quadrant, is febrile and tired. Based on the client’s recent history, what is the best intervention? Prescribe Salicylates for the fever Refer to Gastroenterology Prescribe antibiotics Refer to Emergency Services Hide Feedback Splenic rupture may have occurred; refer to ER is best intervention to r/o active bleeding and need for surgical removal of spleen. Question 4 1 / 1 point Question 4 An established 14-year-old client who recently returned from camp presents to the clinic c/o chills, severe headache, myalgias, malaise, GI upset/tenderness, diarrhea, cough, conjunctival injection, and a fever. On exam, the provider notes a rash of faint pink spots on the wrists, forearms, ankles, and the trunk. What is the most likely diagnosis? Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever Leptospirosis Meningococcemia Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura Hide Feedback Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever Question 5 1 / 1 point Question 5 A client with chickenpox who cannot stop itching presents to the clinic requesting relief. What can the provider do to help this client? (select all that apply) Prescribe calamine lotion Prescribe oral antihistamines Prescribe Salicylates Recommend oatmeal baths Hide Feedback All choices are accurate except Salicylates are contraindicated because of Reye Syndrome. All choices are accurate except Salicylates are contraindicated because of Reye Syndrome. Question 6 1 / 1 point Question 6 An infant can complete hand-to-hand transfers at what age? 90 days 120 days 7 months 11 months Hide Feedback object transfer occurs by 7 months of age. Question 7 1 / 1 point Question 7 Which is the most appropriate anticipatory guidance for the child diagnosed with fracture through the growth plate? No sports until pain has resolved Use crutches to ambulate until healed Rest, ice, compress and elevate the affected area Exercise affected area using active range-of-motion exercises Hide Feedback Treatment of slipped capital femoral epiphysis is aimed at pre- venting further slippage. Since the goal is no weight bearing and avoiding flexion of the hip, no sports are recommended. Ice would not change the problem in the femoral head, and ROM and exercise are contraindicated. Question 8 1 / 1 point Question 8 The provider learns that the family of a client recently rescued a cat from the outside. To prevent the risk of toxoplasmosis, which anticipatory guidance is most appropriate? Feed cat well balanced and high-quality food. Wear shoes at all times in the home. Thoroughly wash hands after changing cat litter. Bath cat on a bi-weekly basis Hide Feedback Transmission of toxoplasmosis occurs through handling of cat feces. Pregnant women should avoid contact with cat litter, and others should wash hands thoroughly when handling cat litter. Question 9 1 / 1 point Question 9 A 9-day-old client presents to the clinic who is sluggish, has a temperature of 97°F, HR 105, cool extremities, and loss of appetite, presents to the clinic. What should the provider do? Recommend parents to allow the client to sleep Reassure parents that this is normal and client will return to baseline in 7 days Recommend formula feeding Refer to ER to rule out sepsis View Feedback Question 10 1 / 1 point Question 10 The provider understands that a client with a history of hemolytic anemia and a recent diagnosis of erythema infectiosum (fifth disease), is at risk for which complication? Arthritis Papular-purpuric “gloves and socks” syndrome Chronic Infection Aplastic crisis View Feedback ________________________________________ NSG 6435 Week 4 Quiz Question 1 1 / 1 point A school-age client presents to the clinic to establish care. The child has autism, facial dysmorphia, and growth retardation. The provider suspects the child has what condition? A. Down Syndrome B. Fetal alcohol syndrome*** C. Prader- Willi syndrome D. Turner syndrome Autism, facial dysmorphia, and growth retardation are differential diagnoses of fetal alcohol syndrome. Question 2 1 / 1 point A 8-year-old client was recently discharged from the hospital following an episode of meningitis. The client presented to the clinic for a follow-up appointment post discharge. The provider understands that the client’s is at increased risk for which complication(s)? (check all that apply) A. Hearing Impairment*** B. Paralysis*** C. Loss of Speech*** D. Infertility Question 3 1 / 1 point A client with history of bilateral tympanostomy tube insertion presents to the clinic c/o otorrhea. The provider confirms the complaint. What is the best treatment for this condition? A. Combination antibiotic and corticosteroid otic drops*** B. Anaglesics and watchful waiting C. Oral antibiotics and antifungal cream D. Corticosteroid otic drops Question 4 1 / 1 point The gold standard in diagnosing acute otitis media is: A. Immobile ™*** B. Pearly gray TM C. Flat TM D. Perforated TM The diagnosis of acute otitis media is based on presence of one or several of the following: bulging TM, decreased translucency of TM, absent or decreased mobility of the TM, air-fluid level behind the TM and otorrhea Question 5 1 / 1 point A provider is caring for a new client whose had recurrent episodes of and failed treatment for acute otitis media. What is the next best intervention? A. Refer to audiologist B. Refer to an otolaryngology*** C. Prescribe a broad spectrum antibiotic for 30 days D. Prescribe an anti- inflammatory Question 6 1 / 1 point A 16 year-old-client presents to your clinic c/o sore throat and 101°F temperature. The provider learns that the client had a sore throat approximately 1 week ago. On exam, client is positive for cervical lymphadenopathy, enlarged left tonsil, edematous pharynx and uvula displacement. What condition does this client most likely have? A. Acute uvulitis B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Mumps D. Peritonsillar abscess Question 7 1 / 1 point A 5-year-old client presents to the clinic for an annual physical. While performing the physical exam, the provider attempts to examine the client’s ears. What does the provider do? A. Gently pull outer ear down and back ** B. Gently pull outer ear up and back C. Gently pull outer ear down D. Gently pull outer ear back To correctly examine the ear of a child older than 12 months gently pull outer ear down and back Question 8 1 / 1 point What are the most common causes of bacterial pneumonia in neonates (select all that apply)? A. Staphylococcus Aureus B. Group B Streptococcus ** C. Listeria Monocytogenes D. E. Coli ** The most common organisms responsible for bacterial pneumonia in neonates are still group B streptococcus and Escherichia coli. The next most common causes are coagulase negative Staph and Listeria in the early neonatal period. After four days of age, the differential needs to be expanded to include S. aureus, Enterobacter, Pseudomonas, Serratia, Candida, Acinetobacter, and anaerobes. Question 9 1 / 1 point An ill appearing 3-month-old-infant is presented to your clinic. The parent reports that their child has a fever, persistent cough, rhinorrhea, wheezing, hypoxemia, and anorexia for 4 days. After the provider’s exam and work-up, the child is diagnosed with Bronchiolitis. What is the most likely treatment option for this infant? A. Refer patient for hospitalization *** B. Refer patient for Pulmonologist C. Refer patient for Bronchoscopy D. Refer patient for Chest X- ray Bronchiolitis is the term used for an infant seen with wheezing for the very first time and is the leading cause of hospitalizations for infants. It presents with cough, fever, coryza, tachypnea, expiratory wheezing, air trapping, and inspiratory crackles. In mild cases, symptoms can last for 1 to 3 days. In severe cases, cyanosis, air hunger, retractions, and nasal flaring with symptoms of severe respiratory distress within a few hours may be seen. Apnea can occur and may require mechanical ventilation. Question 10 1 / 1 point An ill-appearing child is presented to your clinic with a fever, sore throat, restless behavior, dysphagia, drooling, and inspiratory distress without stridor. The child tests positive for Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib). What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Tonsillitis B. Epiglottitis ** C. Laryngotracheobronchitis D. Retropharyngeal abscess Epiglottitis is characterized by inflammation of the epiglottis, the aryepiglottic folds, and the ventricular bands at the base of the epiglottis. The causative organism is Haemophilus influenzae type B (HIB). There is an abrupt onset of fever, severe sore throat, dyspnea, inspiratory distress without stridor, and drooling. The child looks acutely ill and toxic. If epiglottitis is suspected, do not examine the throat. Do not place the child in the supine position, and immediately transport the child to the hospital via emergency medical services. NSG 6435 Week 6 Quiz Question 1 1 / 1 point The provider suspects that a 7-month-old client has Pyloric Stenosis. What physical exam finding is consistent with this disorder? A cluster-of-grape like mass on the right side on rectal examination A grapefruit-like mass on the left side on rectal examination A sausage-like mass in the RUQ of the abdomen A distinct “olive” mass in the epigastrium to the right of midline Question 2 1 / 1 point The provider suspects that a 7-month-old client has been diagnosed with Intussusception. What exam finding is consistent with this disorder? A cluster-of-grape like mass on the right side on rectal examination A grapefruit-like mass on the left side on rectal examination A sausage-like mass in the RUQ of the abdomen A distinct “olive” mass in the epigastrium to the right of midline Question 3 1 / 1 point A 5-year-old client with a history of crying with bowel movements, bright red streaks of blood in the stool and withholding stools presents to the clinic. On exam, the anal mucosa shows small tears with the client in the knee-to-chest position. What is the most likely diagnosis and how is it treated? Anal fissures; treat with sitz bath and topical steroid cream Anal fissures, treat with sitz baths and topical antibiotic ointment Anal fissures; Tucks pads and analgesics Anal fissures; referral to GI specialist for further evaluation Question 4 1 / 1 point The guardians of a 7-month-old client newly diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux is unsure of the proper way to care for the child. What information does the Provider share? (select all that apply Use thickening agents in the formula Administer the acid-suppression medications as prescribed Place prone when sleeping Avoid exposure of the infant to tobacco smoke Question 5 1 / 1 point The parents of a 3-month-old client presents to the clinic complaining that their child appears to be losing weight. Upon examination the it is noted that the client is irritable and weight falls below the 5th percentile of children who are the same age and height. The provider makes a diagnosis of Failure to Thrive (FTT). What is the most likely cause of FTT in this patient? Congenital disorder Acquired disorder Structural defect Food Aversion Question 6 1 / 1 point The provider understands the most common type of enuresis in school-age children is: Quaternary diurnal enuresis Tertiary nocturnal encopresis Secondary diurnal encopresis Primary nocturnal enuresis Question 7 1 / 1 point A 2-year-old client presents to the clinic with fever, dyspnea, diarrhea, vomiting, and weight loss. The parents report an increase in abdominal size. On exam, a firm, smooth abdominal mass and a left varicocele are palpated. What is the most likely diagnosis? Neuroblastoma Hydronephrosis Multicystic kidney Wilms Tumor Question 8 0 / 1 point A benign, painless scrotal mass or cyst on the head of the epididymis or testicular adnexa containing sperm best describes what condition? Hydrocele. Varicocele Spermatocele Omphalocele Question 9 0 / 1 point A benign enlargement or dilation of testicular veins causing a painless scrotal mass of varying size that feels like a “bag of worms” best describes what condition? Hydrocele Varicocele Spermatocele Omphalocele Question 10 1 / 1 point The child that sits to void and urinates on the floor in front of the toilet unless he holds his penis to direct the stream most likely has what condition? Hypospadias Phimosis Paraphimosis Epispadias NSG 6435 Week 7 Quiz Question 1 1 / 1 point A newborn is born with a cleft lip and palate. The provider understands that the slit in the lip and mouth will introduce specific challenges for the parents and child. How best can a provider manage this condition before its repaired? (select all the apply) Recommend the use of special nipples for feeding Recommend speech therapy in later years. Recommend dental restoration as often needed. Refer to surgeon when indicated Question 2 1 / 1 point Most young children walk on their toes until they establish the heel-toe pattern. This pattern usually develops within the first 6 months of walking. Toe walking can be idiopathic or secondary to a neurologic problem. Since it is important for the provider to differentiate between the causes; what should the provider do to accomplish this? (select all that apply) Look at shoe wear to assess extent of toe walking. Assess the heels for tight cords Conduct a neuro assessment. Measure leg lengths and examine hips. Question 3 1 / 1 point An infant client is positive for moist, beefy-red macules and papules with sharply marked borders and satellite lesions to the diaper area. KOH-treated scrapings of satellite lesions show pseudohyphae. What is the most likely diagnosis? Tinea Miliaria Erythema toxicum Candidiasis Question 4 1 / 1 point A 15-year-old client presents to the clinic c/o tenderness to the right side. The pain started gradually and often radiates to the back. On exam the client is positive for Tietze syndrome. The provider diagnosis the client with Costochondritis. How should the provider treat this condition? (select all that apply) Recommend mild analgesics and NSAIDs Recommend avoiding strenuous activity Take cough suppressants Administer cortisone injections Question 5 1 / 1 point A 6-year-old client presents to the clinic c/o of an intermittent limp and pain to the anterior thigh. Upon exam, the following is noted: antalgic gait with limited hip movement, atrophy of the gluteus, quadriceps, and hamstring muscles; decreased abduction, internal rotation, and extension of the hip and pain on rolling the leg internally. What is the most likely diagnosis? Legg-Calvé-Perthes Disease Osteomyelitis Rheumatoid arthritis Gaucher disease Question 6 1 / 1 point A 9-year-old client in town for the summer presents to the clinic c/o a rash. Upon exam, the following is noted: multiple, annular, scaling, and discrete hypopigmented patches located on the trunk. KOH scrapings of the lesions revealed short curved hyphae and circular spores that fluoresced yellow-orange under the Wood’s lamp. What is the most likely diagnosed? Tinea corporis Tinea manuum Tinea versicolor Tinea capitis Question 7 1 / 1 point A 17-year-old client presents to the clinic c/o of small bumps all over the face. Upon exam, the following is noted: very small, firm, flesh-colored discrete papules 1 to 6 mm in size located to the face, axillae, and trunk. What is the most likely diagnosis? Molluscum contagiosum Condyloma acuminatum Small epidermal cysts Acne vulgaris Question 8 1 / 1 point A 5-year-old client who presents to your clinic is found to have small white oval cases attached tightly to the hair shafts at the back of the head, nape of the neck and eyelashes. What is the best treatment approach? Prescribe Antifungals Prescribe Antiparasitics Prescribe combination medication consisting of Antifungals and Antiparasitics Prescribe medication that follows local resistance patterns Question 9 1 / 1 point A 4-year-old client reports to the clinic with visible scratch marks to the arms. The mother explains that the client is restless, cranky and scratches throughout the day which intensifies at night. On exam, the following is noted: S-shaped burrows in the webs of fingers, sides of hands and forearms. What is the most likely diagnosis and the most appropriate treatment? Scabies; treat with Antiparasitics Insect bites; treat with Antiparasitics Scabies, treat with Antifungals Insect bites; treat with Antifungals Question 10 What are the key clinical signs and symptoms that are characteristic of the disease erythema multiforme? (select all that apply) Lesions of the oral mucosa that are shallow Lesions are fixed, symmetric, and have a typical distribution Lesions initially appear dusky, as red macules or edematous papules. Lesions evolve into target lesions with multiple, concentric rings of color change NSG 6435 Week 8 Quiz Question 1 1 / 1 point The physical exam of an established 7-month-old client - diagnosed with spastic cerebral palsy – will mostly likely be positive for which signs? Increased deep tendon reflexes and sustained clonus Dystonic posturing and sustained clonus Abnormal involuntary movements and increased deep tendon reflexes Nystagmus and absent reflexes Question 2 1 / 1 point A 4-year-old client, who is new to the clinic, presents for a sick visit. However, upon exam the provider discovers that the client has flaccid paralysis over the lower extremities, absent deep tendon reflexes, lack of response to touch and pain, and has a saclike cyst on the lower back. What is the most probable diagnosis? Viral gastroenteritis Myelomeningocele Meningitis Shunt infection Question 3 1 / 1 point A 7-month old female client presents to the clinic to establish care. During the visit, the parents report that their daughter was developing as expected during the first 5 months of life but they fear that her development has plateaued. Over the last two months she has become withdrawn and has lost skills previously performed like partial hand skills and acquired spoken language. The provider notes on exam excessive bruxism, periods of apnea followed by hyperpnea, hand wringing, and spastic para¬paresis. What is the most likely diagnosis? Rett Syndrome Autism Spectrum Disorder Cerebral Palsy Brain Damage Question 4 0 / 1 point An apparently healthy 7-year-old client, presents to the clinic complaining of left-sided facial paralysis that occurred suddenly. The client denies any sensory loss but reports difficulty closing the left eyelid. The provider suspects the client has Bell’s Palsy. Which cranial nerve is most likely affected in this condition? IV V VI VII Question 5 0 / 1 point A 2-year-old client, who is unknown to the clinic, is presented as a walk-in after experiencing two seizures last night when the temperature spiked to 102°F. During the visit, the provider learns that the client is currently being treated for a viral illness. In the clinic, the client’s temperature is 100°F. The provider informs the parent that febrile seizures may reoccur. Although rarely required, what prophylactic medication can the provider prescribe? (select all that apply) Diazepam 0.33 mg/kg by mouth every 8 hours for 2 to 3 days Diazepam 0.5mg/kg by suppositories once per day Phenytoin 0.33mg/kg by mouth every 8 hours for 2 to 3 days Phenytoin 0.5mg/kg by suppositories once per day Question 6 1 / 1 point A 16-year-old client presents to the clinic complaining of frequent headaches with bouts of nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, photophobia and throbbing unilateral pain that is only relieved with sleep. What is the most likely diagnosis? Cluster headache Vascular headache Tension headache Migraine headache Question 7 1 / 1 point A 15-year-old client presents to the clinic complaining of tension headaches. The provider understands that the client will experience pain to what region of the head? At the back of the head On both sides of the head At the top of the head On one side of the head Question 8 1 / 1 point The parents of a 4-year-old client hysterically calls the office to seek assistance after their child hit his head on the brick walkway and lost consciousness for 10 minutes. What possible complications/conditions is the client at risk for? (select all that apply) Concussions Intracranial lesions Cerebral contusions Febrile seizures Question 9 1 / 1 point Seventy-two hours after an emergency delivery, a newborn develops respiratory insufficiency, dysphagia, hypotonia, ptosis, weakness, weak cry, poor sucking, choking, expressionless face, and absent Moro reflex. Based on the symptomology the provider suspects that the newborn may be showing signs of Myasthenia Gravis. Which clinical test, when performed, may confirm this diagnosis? Administering the short-acting cholinesterase inhibitor, edrophonium. Administering the long-acting cholinesterase inhibitor, neostigmine. Administering the short-acting cholinesterase inhibitor, pyridostigmine. Administering the long-acting cholinesterase inhibitor, Rivastigmate. Question 10 1 / 1 point A 16-year-old client, new to the clinic, presents with complaints of weakness and Landry ascending paralysis progressing over the last few weeks. The provider suspects Guillain-Barré syndrome based on the reported symptoms. However, as the collection of the client’s health history continues, a past infection with which virus supports the providers suspicions? Enterovirus Epstein-Barr virus Haemophilus influenzae Hantavirus NSG6435 WEEK 9 Quiz Question 1 1 / 1 point A client presents to clinic for the first time. The provider discovers that the client was diagnosed with Prader-Willi Syndrome. What symptoms does the provider expect to find during this encounter? Hyperphasia, obesity, and strabismus Lethargy, stridor, and irritability Low-set ears, short stature, and webbed neck Flat nasal bridge, epicanthal folds, and heart murmur Question 2 1 / 1 point A client with Prader-Willi syndrome, well-known to the clinic, presents today for an annual physical. This client is at higher risk and should be screened for what medical condition? Depression Pyloric Stenosis Celiac disease Type 2 diabetes mellitus Question 3 1 / 1 point A new client presents to the clinic to establish care. On exam, the provider notes the following: a long narrow face, high-arched palate and dental crowding, prominent ears, strabismus, macroorchidism, short stature, cognitive impairments and stereopathies. What would be the most likely diagnosis? Fragile X Prader-Willi Angelman Beckwith-Weidemann Question 4 1 / 1 point If a client is positive for any of the following categorical clinical findings and developmental deficiencies: Failure to thrive, Central obesity, Enamel hypoplasia, Scoliosis, Motor delays, Mild intellectual disability and Compulsive hyperphagia; what would be the most likely diagnosis? Fragile X Prader-Willi Angelman Beckwith-Weidemann View Feedback Question 5 1 / 1 point If a client is positive for any of the following categorical clinical findings and developmental deficiencies: Seizures, Global developmental delays, Abnormal gait, arms held high/flexed elbows, Hypotonic trunk with hypertonic limbs (commando crawl), Feeding/growth problems, Acquired microcephaly, Speech delay, Spontaneous (persistent) social smile/fits of laughter, and Loves water. What would be the most likely diagnosis? Fragile X Prader-Willi Angelman Beckwith-Weidemann Question 6 1 / 1 point If a client is positive for any of the following categorical clinical findings and developmental deficiencies: Omphalocele or umbilical hernia, macroglossia, facial features: Nevus flammeus, helical pits, prominent eyes, anterior ear lobe creases, Large placenta/long umbilical cord, Hypoglycemia, Cardiomegaly, Dental malocclusion with maxillary underdevelopment, and Articulation issues. What would be the most likely diagnosis? Fragile X Prader-Willi Angelman Beckwith-Weidemann Question 7 1 / 1 point If a client is positive for any of the following categorical clinical findings and developmental deficiencies: tall, long limbs, aortic root dilatation, mitral valve prolapse/regurgitation, ectopialentis, myopia, retinal detachment, exotropia/strabismus, spontaneous pneumothorax, connective tissue problems, pectus deformities, joint hyperextensibility. What would be the most likely diagnosis?What would be the most likely diagnosis? Turner DiGeorge Marfan Huntington Question 8 1 / 1 point What is true about diploid cells? (select all that apply) Each contains 23 paired chromosomes. Each one contains 23 chromosomes. Replication produces two identical cells. They replicate via the process of mitosis. Question 9 1 / 1 point Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects the cells that produce mucus, sweat, and digestive juices. It is considered a recessive disease caused by a gene mutation on both alleles inherited from the parents. Which type of genetic disorder is this? Chromosome Mitochondrial Monogenetic Multifactorial Question 10 1 / 1 point Which diagnostic test is most appropriate when a provider wishes to identify and evaluate the size, shape, and number of chromosomes of a client? Chromosomal microarray Fluorescence in-situ hybridization Karyotype Molecular testing