WOMEN’S HEALTH CARE IN ADVANCED PRACTICE
NURSING 2ND EDITION IVY M. ALEXANDER WHNP, FNP,
APRN EXAM PREP LATEST 2026-2027 400-QUESTION
COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
SECTION 1: FOUNDATIONS OF WOMEN’S HEALTH CARE
Question 1
A 34-year-old woman presents for her annual well-woman exam. She
has no significant medical history and takes no medications. She reports
a sedentary lifestyle and a diet high in processed foods. Vital signs are
within normal limits. As an advanced practice nurse, you are developing
a health promotion plan. Which of the following factors has the greatest
impact on improving her long-term health outcomes and reducing her
risk of morbidity and mortality?
A. Resolving all language and cultural differences
B. Assuring early and adequate prenatal care, if she becomes pregnant
C. Encouraging a balanced diet and regular exercise
D. Screening for intimate partner violence
Answer: C. Encouraging a balanced diet and regular exercise
Rationale: While all options are important aspects of comprehensive
care, addressing modifiable lifestyle risk factors is paramount for long-
term health. Heart disease is the leading cause of death for women in
the United States. Lifestyle interventions, including diet and exercise, are
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foundational for preventing cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and other
chronic conditions. While prenatal care is crucial once pregnant, the
question asks about long-term health outcomes for this non-pregnant
woman. Regular physical activity and a balanced diet are primary
prevention strategies with the broadest impact on overall health and
mortality.
Question 2
A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue and weight gain. She reports
feeling cold frequently and notes that her hair has become dry and
brittle. Her menstrual cycles are irregular. Based on the principles of
family-centered care and the APRN’s role as a provider, what is the most
appropriate initial step in her management?
A. Immediately refer her to an endocrinologist for a thyroid biopsy.
B. View her symptoms as a procedural event and begin immediate
hormone replacement therapy.
C. Recognize that her symptoms may be related to a systemic condition
and conduct a comprehensive history and physical, including a family
history.
D. Assume her symptoms are solely due to the perimenopausal
transition and provide reassurance without further testing.
Answer: C. Recognize that her symptoms may be related to a systemic
condition and conduct a comprehensive history and physical, including a
family history.
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Rationale: The APRN’s role involves comprehensive assessment. The
patient's symptoms (fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, dry hair) are
classic for hypothyroidism. A family-centered approach considers the
patient's symptoms within the context of her life, but the immediate
clinical priority is to perform a thorough diagnostic evaluation. Ruling
out systemic conditions like thyroid dysfunction is a crucial first step
before attributing symptoms to menopause. This approach aligns with
the principles of advanced practice nursing, which emphasizes a holistic,
evidence-based assessment.
Question 3
A 26-year-old nulliparous woman is seeking contraception. She has a
history of migraine with aura and is a smoker (10 cigarettes/day). She is
in a monogamous relationship and prefers a method that is highly
effective and does not require daily adherence. Which of the following
contraceptive options is contraindicated for this patient?
A. Etonogestrel implant
B. Copper intrauterine device (IUD)
C. Combined oral contraceptive pills (COCs)
D. Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS)
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Answer: C. Combined oral contraceptive pills (COCs)
Rationale: This patient has two absolute contraindications to combined
hormonal contraceptives (which contain estrogen): migraine with aura
and smoking while over the age of 35 (though she is 26, her risk profile is
significantly elevated). Estrogen increases the risk of thrombotic events,
particularly stroke, in patients with these risk factors. The other options
(implant, copper IUD, LNG-IUS) are all progestin-only or non-hormonal
methods and are safe and highly effective options for her.
Question 4
A 42-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of heavy, irregular
menstrual bleeding. She reports a sense of pelvic pressure and frequent
urination. A pelvic exam reveals an enlarged, irregularly shaped uterus.
Which of the following is the most likely underlying pathophysiology for
her symptoms?
A. Endometrial hyperplasia
B. Uterine fibroids (leiomyomas)
C. Adenomyosis
D. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
Answer: B. Uterine fibroids (leiomyomas)