A+ VERIFIED
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · ORIGINAL CONTENT · ORIGINAL · 2026/2027
NUR 210 Exams 1-4 Galen Pharmacology
2026/2027
Questions and Answers | Pharmacology | Safety — Pass Guaranteed —
A+ Graded
T O TA L Q U E S T I O N S SECTIONS R AT I O N A L E S
200 4 200
Sequential · A–D options Domain-balanced coverage Per-item explanations
W H AT T H I S C O V E R S
01 Exam 1: Pharmacokinetics, 02 Exam 2: Cardiovascular, Renal, and
Pharmacodynamics, and Safe Medication Endocrine Pharmacology
Administration 50 Questions · Q51–100
50 Questions · Q1–50
03 Exam 3: Anti-Infective, Immunologic, and 04 Exam 4: Neurological, Psychiatric, and Pain
Respiratory Pharmacology Management Pharmacology
50 Questions · Q101–150 50 Questions · Q151–200
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
This assessment evaluates nursing pharmacology competencies across pharmacokinetics/dynamics and safe
medication administration, cardiovascular/renal/endocrine pharmacology, anti-infective/immunologic/respiratory
pharmacology, and neurological/psychiatric/pain pharmacology. Items target application and analysis skills aligned with
undergraduate nursing pharmacology coursework.
LEVEL
PA S S I N G S C O R E F O R M AT D I F F I C U LT Y
Undergraduate
80% MC · 4 opt Intermediate
Nursing
S T U V I A • A C T U A L E X A M • O R I G I N A L 2 0 2 0 2 7 E D I T I O N
,NUR 210 Exams 1-4 Galen Pharmacology · 2026/2027 Passing: 80%
Questions and Answers · Original 2026/2027 Edition · A+ Graded 200 Qs · 4 Sections
NUR 210 Exams 1-4 Galen Pharmacology —
Questions, Answers & Rationales
2026/2027 · Difficulty: Intermediate · Bloom's: Application/Analysis · Passing: 80%
Section 1: Exam 1: Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, and Safe
Medication Administration
Questions 1–50 · 50 items
1. A new graduate nurse is preparing to administer oral metoprolol 25 mg to Mr. Reyes in room 214.
Which action best demonstrates application of the rights of medication administration?
A. Confirm the patient's name and birth date, the medication, dose, route, time, and indication before
giving the drug ✓
B. Verify the medication with a second nurse only when the drug is a controlled substance
C. Administer the dose using the room number as the patient identifier
D. Document the medication after the next shift change to avoid interruption
✓ Correct Answer: A (Five Rights of Medication Administration)
Rationale: The rights of medication administration require verifying patient identity with two identifiers, plus the
correct drug, dose, route, time, and reason/indication before administration; relying on room number or delaying
documentation is unsafe.
2. Nurse Patel is preparing to administer ceftriaxone 1 g IV. Which sequence best demonstrates the three
checks of medication administration?
A. Check at the pharmacy, at the dispensing cabinet, and at the bedside after administration
B. Check once before drawing up, once before labeling, and once before disposing
C. Check when pulling the drug from the cabinet, when preparing the dose, and again at the bedside
against the MAR ✓
D. Check only the provider order, the patient's wristband, and the IV pump rate
✓ Correct Answer: C (Three Checks of Medication Administration)
Rationale: The three checks occur when retrieving the medication, when preparing it, and at the bedside prior to
administration against the MAR; checking after administration or only verifying the pump does not meet the
standard.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer oral morphine to a patient. Which method best verifies the right
patient?
A. Asking the patient to confirm their room number and bed assignment
B. Comparing the MAR with the patient's wristband and asking the patient to state name and birth
date ✓
C. Asking a family member in the hallway to confirm the patient's identity
D. Calling out the patient's name and proceeding if the patient responds
✓ Correct Answer: B (Right Patient Identification (Two Identifiers))
Rationale: Two patient identifiers (typically name and date of birth) must be verified against the wristband and
MAR; room number and family verification are not acceptable identifiers.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Original · 2026/2027 Edition Page 1
,NUR 210 Exams 1-4 Galen Pharmacology · 2026/2027 Passing: 80%
Questions and Answers · Original 2026/2027 Edition · A+ Graded 200 Qs · 4 Sections
4. Ms. Lin is prescribed propranolol 40 mg PO. The oral dose is significantly higher than an equivalent IV
dose. Which pharmacokinetic concept best explains this difference?
A. Increased plasma protein binding after oral administration
B. Rapid renal excretion of the IV form
C. Higher bioavailability of oral medications
D. Hepatic first-pass metabolism reduces the active drug reaching systemic circulation ✓
✓ Correct Answer: D (First-Pass Effect (Hepatic Metabolism))
Rationale: Orally absorbed drugs pass through the portal circulation and liver before reaching systemic circulation,
where first-pass metabolism lowers bioavailability; this is why oral doses are typically higher than equivalent IV
doses.
5. A drug is 30% bioavailable when given orally and 100% bioavailable when given IV. Which statement
by the nurse best reflects understanding of bioavailability?
A. Bioavailability describes the drug's protein-binding affinity.
B. Bioavailability is the same regardless of the administration route.
C. Bioavailability predicts the duration of drug action.
D. Bioavailability is the fraction of the administered dose that reaches systemic circulation
unchanged. ✓
✓ Correct Answer: D (Bioavailability (Route Impact))
Rationale: Bioavailability is the percentage of the administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in an active
form; IV bioavailability is 100% while oral bioavailability varies with absorption and first-pass effects.
6. A patient is receiving IV gentamicin every 8 hours. The provider orders peak and trough levels. When
should the nurse draw the trough level?
A. Thirty minutes after the infusion ends
B. Thirty minutes before the next scheduled dose ✓
C. Immediately before administration only
D. Two hours after the infusion completes
✓ Correct Answer: B (Peak and Trough Timing (Aminoglycoside))
Rationale: The trough is drawn just before the next dose (typically 30 minutes prior) to assess the lowest serum
concentration and risk of accumulation; peaks are drawn 30 minutes after infusion completion.
7. A drug has a half-life of 12 hours and is administered once daily. Approximately how long will it take to
reach steady-state serum levels?
A. About 60 hours (approximately five half-lives) ✓
B. About 24 hours (two half-lives)
C. About 12 hours (one half-life)
D. Immediately after the first dose
✓ Correct Answer: A (Half-Life and Steady State)
Rationale: Steady state is reached after approximately four to five half-lives; with a 12-hour half-life, steady state
occurs in 48-60 hours, which is clinically relevant for therapeutic drug monitoring.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Original · 2026/2027 Edition Page 2
, NUR 210 Exams 1-4 Galen Pharmacology · 2026/2027 Passing: 80%
Questions and Answers · Original 2026/2027 Edition · A+ Graded 200 Qs · 4 Sections
8. A patient who is morbidly obese is being started on IV midazolam, a highly lipophilic drug. The nurse
understands that this patient may require:
A. Lower than usual doses due to reduced distribution
B. No loading dose because the drug stays in plasma
C. Higher loading doses because the drug distributes extensively into adipose tissue ✓
D. More frequent dosing because clearance is reduced
✓ Correct Answer: C (Volume of Distribution (Lipophilic Drugs))
Rationale: Lipophilic drugs distribute widely into adipose tissue, increasing the volume of distribution and often
necessitating higher loading doses in obese patients to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations.
9. An elderly patient on warfarin is started on sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim, which is highly
protein-bound. The nurse anticipates that the patient may experience:
A. Decreased warfarin effect due to enhanced protein binding
B. No change in warfarin effect because binding is clinically irrelevant
C. Increased free warfarin and higher INR, raising bleeding risk ✓
D. Increased warfarin metabolism and a lower INR
✓ Correct Answer: C (Protein Binding and Free Drug Levels)
Rationale: Highly protein-bound drugs like sulfamethoxazole can displace warfarin from albumin, increasing the
free (active) fraction and INR, raising bleeding risk; this is a pharmacokinetic displacement interaction.
10. Which laboratory finding best illustrates the clinical importance of a narrow therapeutic index?
A. A serum sodium of 138 mEq/L after furosemide
B. A fasting glucose of 110 mg/dL in a patient on metformin
C. A potassium of 4.0 mEq/L in a patient on lisinopril
D. A digoxin level of 2.4 ng/mL in a patient with nausea and visual disturbances ✓
✓ Correct Answer: D (Therapeutic Index and Narrow Therapeutic Range)
Rationale: Drugs with a narrow therapeutic index such as digoxin require close monitoring because levels only
slightly above therapeutic produce toxicity; the elevated level and classic symptoms indicate digoxin toxicity.
11. A patient taking long-acting morphine for chronic pain is given naloxone for respiratory depression.
Which best describes naloxone's pharmacodynamic action?
A. Partial agonist at the mu receptor
B. Positive allosteric modulator
C. Synergistic agonist at mu and kappa receptors
D. Competitive antagonist at the mu opioid receptor ✓
✓ Correct Answer: D (Agonist vs Antagonist (Competitive Antagonism))
Rationale: Naloxone is a competitive antagonist at opioid mu receptors, displacing opioids and reversing
respiratory depression; partial agonists or synergists would not reverse opioid effects.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Original · 2026/2027 Edition Page 3
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · ORIGINAL CONTENT · ORIGINAL · 2026/2027
NUR 210 Exams 1-4 Galen Pharmacology
2026/2027
Questions and Answers | Pharmacology | Safety — Pass Guaranteed —
A+ Graded
T O TA L Q U E S T I O N S SECTIONS R AT I O N A L E S
200 4 200
Sequential · A–D options Domain-balanced coverage Per-item explanations
W H AT T H I S C O V E R S
01 Exam 1: Pharmacokinetics, 02 Exam 2: Cardiovascular, Renal, and
Pharmacodynamics, and Safe Medication Endocrine Pharmacology
Administration 50 Questions · Q51–100
50 Questions · Q1–50
03 Exam 3: Anti-Infective, Immunologic, and 04 Exam 4: Neurological, Psychiatric, and Pain
Respiratory Pharmacology Management Pharmacology
50 Questions · Q101–150 50 Questions · Q151–200
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
This assessment evaluates nursing pharmacology competencies across pharmacokinetics/dynamics and safe
medication administration, cardiovascular/renal/endocrine pharmacology, anti-infective/immunologic/respiratory
pharmacology, and neurological/psychiatric/pain pharmacology. Items target application and analysis skills aligned with
undergraduate nursing pharmacology coursework.
LEVEL
PA S S I N G S C O R E F O R M AT D I F F I C U LT Y
Undergraduate
80% MC · 4 opt Intermediate
Nursing
S T U V I A • A C T U A L E X A M • O R I G I N A L 2 0 2 0 2 7 E D I T I O N
,NUR 210 Exams 1-4 Galen Pharmacology · 2026/2027 Passing: 80%
Questions and Answers · Original 2026/2027 Edition · A+ Graded 200 Qs · 4 Sections
NUR 210 Exams 1-4 Galen Pharmacology —
Questions, Answers & Rationales
2026/2027 · Difficulty: Intermediate · Bloom's: Application/Analysis · Passing: 80%
Section 1: Exam 1: Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, and Safe
Medication Administration
Questions 1–50 · 50 items
1. A new graduate nurse is preparing to administer oral metoprolol 25 mg to Mr. Reyes in room 214.
Which action best demonstrates application of the rights of medication administration?
A. Confirm the patient's name and birth date, the medication, dose, route, time, and indication before
giving the drug ✓
B. Verify the medication with a second nurse only when the drug is a controlled substance
C. Administer the dose using the room number as the patient identifier
D. Document the medication after the next shift change to avoid interruption
✓ Correct Answer: A (Five Rights of Medication Administration)
Rationale: The rights of medication administration require verifying patient identity with two identifiers, plus the
correct drug, dose, route, time, and reason/indication before administration; relying on room number or delaying
documentation is unsafe.
2. Nurse Patel is preparing to administer ceftriaxone 1 g IV. Which sequence best demonstrates the three
checks of medication administration?
A. Check at the pharmacy, at the dispensing cabinet, and at the bedside after administration
B. Check once before drawing up, once before labeling, and once before disposing
C. Check when pulling the drug from the cabinet, when preparing the dose, and again at the bedside
against the MAR ✓
D. Check only the provider order, the patient's wristband, and the IV pump rate
✓ Correct Answer: C (Three Checks of Medication Administration)
Rationale: The three checks occur when retrieving the medication, when preparing it, and at the bedside prior to
administration against the MAR; checking after administration or only verifying the pump does not meet the
standard.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer oral morphine to a patient. Which method best verifies the right
patient?
A. Asking the patient to confirm their room number and bed assignment
B. Comparing the MAR with the patient's wristband and asking the patient to state name and birth
date ✓
C. Asking a family member in the hallway to confirm the patient's identity
D. Calling out the patient's name and proceeding if the patient responds
✓ Correct Answer: B (Right Patient Identification (Two Identifiers))
Rationale: Two patient identifiers (typically name and date of birth) must be verified against the wristband and
MAR; room number and family verification are not acceptable identifiers.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Original · 2026/2027 Edition Page 1
,NUR 210 Exams 1-4 Galen Pharmacology · 2026/2027 Passing: 80%
Questions and Answers · Original 2026/2027 Edition · A+ Graded 200 Qs · 4 Sections
4. Ms. Lin is prescribed propranolol 40 mg PO. The oral dose is significantly higher than an equivalent IV
dose. Which pharmacokinetic concept best explains this difference?
A. Increased plasma protein binding after oral administration
B. Rapid renal excretion of the IV form
C. Higher bioavailability of oral medications
D. Hepatic first-pass metabolism reduces the active drug reaching systemic circulation ✓
✓ Correct Answer: D (First-Pass Effect (Hepatic Metabolism))
Rationale: Orally absorbed drugs pass through the portal circulation and liver before reaching systemic circulation,
where first-pass metabolism lowers bioavailability; this is why oral doses are typically higher than equivalent IV
doses.
5. A drug is 30% bioavailable when given orally and 100% bioavailable when given IV. Which statement
by the nurse best reflects understanding of bioavailability?
A. Bioavailability describes the drug's protein-binding affinity.
B. Bioavailability is the same regardless of the administration route.
C. Bioavailability predicts the duration of drug action.
D. Bioavailability is the fraction of the administered dose that reaches systemic circulation
unchanged. ✓
✓ Correct Answer: D (Bioavailability (Route Impact))
Rationale: Bioavailability is the percentage of the administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in an active
form; IV bioavailability is 100% while oral bioavailability varies with absorption and first-pass effects.
6. A patient is receiving IV gentamicin every 8 hours. The provider orders peak and trough levels. When
should the nurse draw the trough level?
A. Thirty minutes after the infusion ends
B. Thirty minutes before the next scheduled dose ✓
C. Immediately before administration only
D. Two hours after the infusion completes
✓ Correct Answer: B (Peak and Trough Timing (Aminoglycoside))
Rationale: The trough is drawn just before the next dose (typically 30 minutes prior) to assess the lowest serum
concentration and risk of accumulation; peaks are drawn 30 minutes after infusion completion.
7. A drug has a half-life of 12 hours and is administered once daily. Approximately how long will it take to
reach steady-state serum levels?
A. About 60 hours (approximately five half-lives) ✓
B. About 24 hours (two half-lives)
C. About 12 hours (one half-life)
D. Immediately after the first dose
✓ Correct Answer: A (Half-Life and Steady State)
Rationale: Steady state is reached after approximately four to five half-lives; with a 12-hour half-life, steady state
occurs in 48-60 hours, which is clinically relevant for therapeutic drug monitoring.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Original · 2026/2027 Edition Page 2
, NUR 210 Exams 1-4 Galen Pharmacology · 2026/2027 Passing: 80%
Questions and Answers · Original 2026/2027 Edition · A+ Graded 200 Qs · 4 Sections
8. A patient who is morbidly obese is being started on IV midazolam, a highly lipophilic drug. The nurse
understands that this patient may require:
A. Lower than usual doses due to reduced distribution
B. No loading dose because the drug stays in plasma
C. Higher loading doses because the drug distributes extensively into adipose tissue ✓
D. More frequent dosing because clearance is reduced
✓ Correct Answer: C (Volume of Distribution (Lipophilic Drugs))
Rationale: Lipophilic drugs distribute widely into adipose tissue, increasing the volume of distribution and often
necessitating higher loading doses in obese patients to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations.
9. An elderly patient on warfarin is started on sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim, which is highly
protein-bound. The nurse anticipates that the patient may experience:
A. Decreased warfarin effect due to enhanced protein binding
B. No change in warfarin effect because binding is clinically irrelevant
C. Increased free warfarin and higher INR, raising bleeding risk ✓
D. Increased warfarin metabolism and a lower INR
✓ Correct Answer: C (Protein Binding and Free Drug Levels)
Rationale: Highly protein-bound drugs like sulfamethoxazole can displace warfarin from albumin, increasing the
free (active) fraction and INR, raising bleeding risk; this is a pharmacokinetic displacement interaction.
10. Which laboratory finding best illustrates the clinical importance of a narrow therapeutic index?
A. A serum sodium of 138 mEq/L after furosemide
B. A fasting glucose of 110 mg/dL in a patient on metformin
C. A potassium of 4.0 mEq/L in a patient on lisinopril
D. A digoxin level of 2.4 ng/mL in a patient with nausea and visual disturbances ✓
✓ Correct Answer: D (Therapeutic Index and Narrow Therapeutic Range)
Rationale: Drugs with a narrow therapeutic index such as digoxin require close monitoring because levels only
slightly above therapeutic produce toxicity; the elevated level and classic symptoms indicate digoxin toxicity.
11. A patient taking long-acting morphine for chronic pain is given naloxone for respiratory depression.
Which best describes naloxone's pharmacodynamic action?
A. Partial agonist at the mu receptor
B. Positive allosteric modulator
C. Synergistic agonist at mu and kappa receptors
D. Competitive antagonist at the mu opioid receptor ✓
✓ Correct Answer: D (Agonist vs Antagonist (Competitive Antagonism))
Rationale: Naloxone is a competitive antagonist at opioid mu receptors, displacing opioids and reversing
respiratory depression; partial agonists or synergists would not reverse opioid effects.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Original · 2026/2027 Edition Page 3
