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NU 578 Unit 4 Gastrointestinal Pharmacology Exam 2026/2027 – 150 Practice Questions & Answers with Detailed Rationales | Nursing Pharmacology Study Guide

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Prepare for the NU 578 Unit 4 Gastrointestinal Pharmacology Exam 2026/2027 with this comprehensive practice study guide featuring 150 practice questions, proposed correct answers, and detailed rationales. Designed for nursing and advanced-practice nursing students, this resource supports review of gastrointestinal medications, therapeutic indications, adverse effects, contraindications, drug interactions, and safe medication management.

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NU 578 Unit 4 Gastrointestinal Pharmacology
Exam | Latest 2026/2027 | 150 Q&A + Rationales




SECTION 1: PUD, GERD, and Acid Suppression (Questions 1–30)

1. What is the primary treatment goal for peptic ulcer disease (PUD) and
gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
A. Eradication of H. pylori
B. Neutralization or reduction of stomach acid
C. Promotion of gastric emptying
D. Protection of the gastric mucosa only

Answer: B
Rationale: The main treatment goal for PUD and GERD is neutralization or reduction of
stomach acid to allow healing of mucosal damage and prevent further injury. While H. pylori
eradication and mucosal protection are important components, acid reduction is the
foundational strategy .

2. A patient with chronic GERD has been on omeprazole 20 mg daily for 8 weeks with
incomplete relief. Which consideration is MOST relevant when switching to another
PPI?
A. Pantoprazole has higher bioavailability than omeprazole.

,B. Esomeprazole undergoes less hepatic metabolism via CYP2C19, leading to higher
systemic exposure.
C. Lansoprazole has a shorter half-life and requires twice-daily dosing.
D. Rabeprazole is acid-labile and must be given with a prokinetic.

Answer: B
Rationale: Esomeprazole (the S-isomer of omeprazole) is metabolized less by CYP2C19,
resulting in higher AUC and more consistent acid suppression, especially in CYP2C19
extensive metabolizers. Pantoprazole actually has higher bioavailability than omeprazole,
and lansoprazole does not require twice-daily dosing for GERD .

3. Which PPI is least affected by CYP2C19 poor metabolizer status?
A. Omeprazole
B. Lansoprazole
C. Rabeprazole
D. Esomeprazole

Answer: C
Rationale: Rabeprazole is less dependent on CYP2C19 for metabolism compared with
omeprazole and lansoprazole, making it a reasonable choice in patients who are CYP2C19
poor metabolizers .

4. A patient with a peptic ulcer is prescribed triple therapy with amoxicillin,
clarithromycin, and omeprazole but reports a penicillin allergy. What is the MOST
appropriate modification?
A. Replace amoxicillin with metronidazole.
B. Replace clarithromycin with doxycycline.
C. Replace omeprazole with ranitidine.
D. Add bismuth subsalicylate and continue all three.

,Answer: A
Rationale: In penicillin-allergic patients, first-line H. pylori therapy often replaces amoxicillin
with metronidazole (or tinidazole) while continuing clarithromycin and a PPI. Doxycycline is
not a standard substitute for clarithromycin, and H2RAs are less effective than PPIs for
eradication .

5. A client with H. pylori infection is prescribed clarithromycin, esomeprazole, and
amoxicillin. Which statement shows the best understanding?
A. "My ulcer will heal because these medications kill the bacteria."
B. "These medications are taken only when I have pain."
C. "The medications will kill the bacteria and stop acid production."
D. "These medications coat the ulcer and decrease acid."

Answer: C
Rationale: The regimen combines antibiotics to eradicate H. pylori and a PPI to suppress
acid, creating an environment that promotes ulcer healing. Option C correctly describes this
dual mechanism .

6. Which H2 receptor antagonist is most associated with CYP450 inhibition and drug
interactions?
A. Famotidine
B. Ranitidine
C. Cimetidine
D. Nizatidine

Answer: C
Rationale: Cimetidine inhibits several CYP450 enzymes, increasing the risk of interactions
with warfarin, phenytoin, and theophylline. Famotidine and nizatidine have minimal CYP450
effects .

, 7. An 80-year-old client started on cimetidine. Which CNS side effect is most frequent
and should be monitored?
A. Tremors
B. Dizziness
C. Confusion
D. Hallucinations

Answer: C
Rationale: Cimetidine crosses the blood-brain barrier and can cause CNS effects, with
confusion being the most frequent, especially in older adults .

8. A client on cimetidine needs further instruction if they make which statements?
Select all that apply.
A. "I will take cimetidine with my meals."
B. "I'll know it's working if my diarrhea stops."
C. "My heartburn should decrease."
D. "Taking it with an antacid will increase its effectiveness."
E. "I will report depression or anxiety."
F. "My blood levels need monitoring since I take warfarin."

Answer: A, B, D
Rationale: Cimetidine is best taken without meals for optimal effect, treats heartburn—not
diarrhea—and antacids can interfere with its absorption. Statements E and F reflect
accurate understanding of CNS effects and warfarin interaction .

9. When should sucralfate be administered for optimal effect?
A. With meals and at bedtime
B. Every 6 hours around the clock

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