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NURS 4322 Postpartum Nursing Assessment & Complications: 110 Questions (PDF) | 2026–2027 | Southern Utah University

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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD Prepare for NURS 4322 Maternal Newborn Nursing exams with 110 practice questions focused on postpartum assessment and maternal complications. Review postpartum hemorrhage, uterine involution, fundal assessment, lochia, postpartum infections, preeclampsia, breastfeeding support, and nursing interventions. Ideal for strengthening clinical decision-making and preparing for 2026–2027 maternity nursing exams. NURS 4322 Postpartum Review, Postpartum Nursing Practice Exam, SUU Maternal Newborn Questions, Postpartum Assessment Practice, Postpartum Hemorrhage Review, Uterine Involution Questions, Fundal Assessment Nursing, Lochia Assessment Review, Postpartum Infection Prevention, Postpartum Preeclampsia Care, Maternal Vital Signs Assessment, Breastfeeding Support Questions, Postpartum Pain Management, Cesarean Recovery Nursing, Maternal Complication Scenarios, Postpartum Patient Education, Maternal Nursing Interventions, Obstetric Patient Safety, Maternity Nursing Exam 2026, Postpartum Exam Preparation 2027

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NURS 4322 | MATERNAL–NEWBORN NURSING | 2026–2027



Postpartum Nursing Assessment & Complications
Review
2026–2027 | 110 ORIGINAL PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Emphasizes postpartum assessment, hemorrhage, infection, mental health, lactation and clinical complications.
Independent educational study material. These are original practice questions, not official Southern Utah University, ATI,
faculty, or licensing examination materials. Similar core concepts appear in multiple files to reinforce learning.
Clinical safety note: Use institutional protocols and current professional guidance. Questions are designed for learning and
are not a substitute for medical decision-making or individualized orders.



Study map
Domain Questions in this document
Labor and delivery 15
Postpartum nursing 40
Newborn assessment and care 18
High-risk and obstetric/neonatal emergencies 37



How to use this resource
Cover the green answer and yellow-highlighted rationale, select A–D, then review the explanation. Mark missed concepts
and revisit the corresponding clinical area. The answer key at the end provides a rapid self-check.



High-yield current guidance checkpoints
• GBS screening: ACOG universal vaginal–rectal culture at 36 0/7–37 6/7 weeks, with intrapartum prophylaxis when
indicated.
• Maternal immunization: Tdap at 27–36 weeks in every pregnancy; Pfizer Abrysvo maternal RSV at 32 0/7–36 6/7 weeks
in the recommended U.S. season.
• Preeclampsia: systolic pressure ≥160 mm Hg or diastolic ≥110 mm Hg is severe range; monitor for headache, visual
symptoms, pulmonary edema and upper-abdominal pain.
• PPH: assess objectively and treat promptly using an integrated protocol; WHO recommends uterine massage,
oxytocic therapy, fluids, IV tranexamic acid when indicated, source assessment and escalation.
• Newborn resuscitation: ventilate for persistent apnea/gasping or HR <100 after initial steps; compress if HR stays <60
after 30 seconds of effective ventilation.
• Jaundice: use bilirubin level, postnatal age in hours, gestational age and neurotoxicity risk factors—not a single
universal phototherapy number.




INDEPENDENT PRACTICE RESOURCE • NURS 4322 • Page 1

, NURS 4322 | MATERNAL–NEWBORN NURSING | 2026–2027


Practice Questions with Answers & Rationales
Questions 1–25
1. Which assessment is most important before the first post-epidural ambulation?
A. Only the preferred walking distance
B. Only the infant's pulse
C. Only whether the patient ate breakfast
D. Lower-extremity strength, sensation, blood pressure, and fall risk
Correct Answer: D. Lower-extremity strength, sensation, blood pressure, and fall risk
Rationale: Residual motor block or orthostasis can cause falls; assess readiness and assist initially.
Incorrect options: A (Only the preferred walking distance); B (Only the infant's pulse); C (Only whether the patient ate breakfast).
These do not best answer the clinical cue; Residual motor block or orthostasis can cause falls; assess readiness and assist
initially.

2. Why is skin-to-skin contact encouraged after stable birth?
A. It eliminates neonatal monitoring
B. It prevents all jaundice
C. It aids temperature regulation, bonding, and early feeding
D. It substitutes for emergency resuscitation
Correct Answer: C. It aids temperature regulation, bonding, and early feeding
Rationale: Skin-to-skin supports thermoregulation and attachment while continued safety monitoring is necessary.
Incorrect options: A (It eliminates neonatal monitoring); B (It prevents all jaundice); D (It substitutes for emergency resuscitation).
These do not best answer the clinical cue; Skin-to-skin supports thermoregulation and attachment while continued safety
monitoring is necessary.

3. Which newborn symptom can indicate hypoglycemia?
A. Jitteriness, poor feeding, or lethargy
B. Regular breathing without distress
C. Active tone and effective suck
D. Normal rooting before a feed
Correct Answer: A. Jitteriness, poor feeding, or lethargy
Rationale: Neonatal hypoglycemia may cause autonomic or neurologic symptoms and warrants glucose
assessment in context.
Incorrect options: B (Regular breathing without distress); C (Active tone and effective suck); D (Normal rooting before a feed).
These do not best answer the clinical cue; Neonatal hypoglycemia may cause autonomic or neurologic symptoms and warrants
glucose assessment in context.

4. What is the safest usual sleep position for a healthy infant?
A. Supine on a firm flat sleep surface
B. Prone in an adult bed
C. Prone with soft pillows
D. Side-lying with positioning wedges
Correct Answer: A. Supine on a firm flat sleep surface
Rationale: Back sleeping on a separate firm flat surface lowers sleep-related infant death risk.
Incorrect options: B (Prone in an adult bed); C (Prone with soft pillows); D (Side-lying with positioning wedges). These do not best
answer the clinical cue; Back sleeping on a separate firm flat surface lowers sleep-related infant death risk.




INDEPENDENT PRACTICE RESOURCE • NURS 4322 • Page 2

, NURS 4322 | MATERNAL–NEWBORN NURSING | 2026–2027


5. Which complication can arise from severe untreated preeclampsia?
A. Stroke, seizures, or organ injury
B. Guaranteed uncomplicated birth
C. Automatic fetal weight normalization
D. Elimination of postpartum hypertension
Correct Answer: A. Stroke, seizures, or organ injury
Rationale: Severe preeclampsia threatens brain, liver, kidney, pulmonary, and placental function.
Incorrect options: B (Guaranteed uncomplicated birth); C (Automatic fetal weight normalization); D (Elimination of postpartum
hypertension). These do not best answer the clinical cue; Severe preeclampsia threatens brain, liver, kidney, pulmonary, and
placental function.

6. An intrapartum patient asks why repeated maternal temperature checks matter. Best response?
A. Only fetal weight matters
B. Temperature has no relation to labor outcomes
C. Fever can signal infection that affects both mother and newborn
D. Fever proves labor is nearly finished
Correct Answer: C. Fever can signal infection that affects both mother and newborn
Rationale: Maternal temperature supports detection of infection and guides neonatal risk assessment.
Incorrect options: A (Only fetal weight matters); B (Temperature has no relation to labor outcomes); D (Fever proves labor is nearly
finished). These do not best answer the clinical cue; Maternal temperature supports detection of infection and guides neonatal
risk assessment.

7. A newborn has central cyanosis despite warmth and adequate stimulation. What is appropriate?
A. Assess oxygenation and cardiopulmonary status promptly
B. Assume all central cyanosis is normal
C. Offer a pacifier and reassess next day
D. Begin routine discharge teaching only
Correct Answer: A. Assess oxygenation and cardiopulmonary status promptly
Rationale: Central cyanosis may indicate hypoxemia and needs immediate clinical assessment.
Incorrect options: B (Assume all central cyanosis is normal); C (Offer a pacifier and reassess next day); D (Begin routine discharge
teaching only). These do not best answer the clinical cue; Central cyanosis may indicate hypoxemia and needs immediate clinical
assessment.

8. What differentiates postpartum blues from a potential depressive disorder?
A. Major depression necessarily resolves in one day
B. Symptom duration is irrelevant
C. Blues always involve suicidal thoughts
D. Blues are typically transient; persistent or severe symptoms require assessment
Correct Answer: D. Blues are typically transient; persistent or severe symptoms require assessment
Rationale: Short-lived tearfulness may occur, but impairment, persistence, or dangerous thoughts warrant
evaluation.
Incorrect options: A (Major depression necessarily resolves in one day); B (Symptom duration is irrelevant); C (Blues always
involve suicidal thoughts). These do not best answer the clinical cue; Short-lived tearfulness may occur, but impairment,
persistence, or dangerous thoughts warrant evaluation.




INDEPENDENT PRACTICE RESOURCE • NURS 4322 • Page 3

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