NUR 210 • PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE SERIES
NUR 210 Pharmacology Exam 2 Practice Exam
2026–2027 • 110 MCQs • Cardiovascular, respiratory, endocrine and anti-infective therapies
Emphasis: drug classes and therapeutic effects, safety monitoring, adverse reactions, patient education and medication
calculations.
USE & SCOPE
Independent practice questions, not an official test, answer key, or course syllabus. NUR 210 varies by school. Dose
calculations are educational examples, not prescribing directions. Verify medication orders, current labeling, facility policies,
monitoring thresholds and patient-specific factors in actual care.
PRACTICE EXAM: QUESTIONS, ANSWERS & RATIONALES
1. A patient on lisinopril develops swelling of the lips and tongue. What is the priority?
A. Give the next dose with food
B. Recommend a lozenge
C. Wait for the next routine visit
D. Stop the medication and obtain emergency airway evaluation
Correct answer: D. Stop the medication and obtain emergency airway evaluation
Detailed rationale: ACE inhibitor-associated angioedema can obstruct the airway and requires urgent attention.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
2. Which electrolyte disturbance is a concern with spironolactone?
A. Hypokalemia in all patients
B. Low calcium as the principal effect
C. Hypernatremia always
D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: D. Hyperkalemia
Detailed rationale: Spironolactone is potassium-sparing and can raise potassium, especially with kidney dysfunction or
interacting drugs.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
3. A patient receives furosemide. Which finding most strongly suggests excessive diuresis?
A. Persistent crackles from overload
B. Dizziness with low blood pressure and reduced volume status
C. New weight gain and edema
D. Increasing central venous pressure
Correct answer: B. Dizziness with low blood pressure and reduced volume status
Detailed rationale: Volume depletion can cause orthostasis, hypotension, and kidney injury.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
4. Which finding warrants assessment before administering metoprolol?
A. Mild hunger
B. Dry skin without symptoms
C. Normal body temperature
D. Marked bradycardia with dizziness
Correct answer: D. Marked bradycardia with dizziness
Detailed rationale: Beta blockers decrease heart rate and can worsen symptomatic bradycardia; hold parameters must
follow the order and local policy.
NUR 210 | Original educational practice resource • 2026–2027 | Page 1
, NUR 210 • PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE SERIES
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
5. Which instruction is appropriate for a patient starting sublingual nitroglycerin for prescribed angina?
A. Sit down before a dose because hypotension and dizziness may occur
B. Take it with sildenafil for better relief
C. Swallow it whole instead of using the ordered route
D. Use it to replace emergency evaluation of persistent chest pain
Correct answer: A. Sit down before a dose because hypotension and dizziness may occur
Detailed rationale: Nitroglycerin can lower blood pressure; phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors may cause dangerous
hypotension when combined.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
6. A patient taking digoxin has nausea, visual changes, and an irregular pulse. What is the best action?
A. Assume the symptoms are harmless
B. Withhold the dose and promptly assess for toxicity and notify the prescriber
C. Give an extra dose
D. Encourage double dosing tomorrow
Correct answer: B. Withhold the dose and promptly assess for toxicity and notify the prescriber
Detailed rationale: These findings are compatible with digoxin toxicity, particularly with electrolyte abnormalities or
renal impairment.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
7. Which laboratory value should the nurse review closely when giving an ACE inhibitor?
A. Serum bilirubin only
B. Serum potassium
C. Platelet count only
D. Serum lipase only
Correct answer: B. Serum potassium
Detailed rationale: ACE inhibitors may elevate potassium and affect kidney function; potassium and creatinine are
commonly monitored.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
8. A patient on a statin reports severe muscle pain and dark urine. What is the concern?
A. A reason to double the statin dose
B. A sign that cholesterol is normal
C. Possible muscle injury requiring urgent evaluation
D. Expected harmless exercise soreness
Correct answer: C. Possible muscle injury requiring urgent evaluation
Detailed rationale: Marked myalgia with dark urine can indicate rhabdomyolysis, a potentially serious adverse effect.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
9. Which instruction is essential with a prescribed potassium supplement?
A. Ignore kidney function
B. Do not add salt substitutes containing potassium without checking first
C. Double the dose when a meal is missed
D. Crush any modified-release form
Correct answer: B. Do not add salt substitutes containing potassium without checking first
Detailed rationale: Potassium-containing salt substitutes may contribute to dangerous hyperkalemia.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
NUR 210 | Original educational practice resource • 2026–2027 | Page 2
, NUR 210 • PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE SERIES
10. A patient on amlodipine develops mild bilateral ankle edema. Which explanation is most accurate?
A. Peripheral edema is a recognized calcium-channel blocker adverse effect
B. It is a therapeutic anticoagulant effect
C. It proves acute kidney failure
D. It always means infection
Correct answer: A. Peripheral edema is a recognized calcium-channel blocker adverse effect
Detailed rationale: Dihydropyridine calcium-channel blockers can cause peripheral edema through arteriolar dilation.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
11. A patient on warfarin asks why INR is checked. Which response is best?
A. It measures blood glucose
B. It diagnoses all clots
C. It helps monitor warfarin's anticoagulant effect
D. It directly measures platelet count
Correct answer: C. It helps monitor warfarin's anticoagulant effect
Detailed rationale: INR helps guide vitamin K antagonist therapy and bleeding-risk management.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
12. A patient on unfractionated heparin develops a major platelet decrease and new thrombosis. What is suspected?
A. Iron-deficiency anemia only
B. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
C. Expected heparin efficacy
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency
Correct answer: B. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
Detailed rationale: HIT is an immune prothrombotic complication; urgent evaluation and changes in anticoagulation are
needed.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
13. A patient taking apixaban reports black tarry stools. What should the nurse do?
A. Promptly evaluate and escalate concern for gastrointestinal bleeding
B. Assume it is caused by fluid retention
C. Advise doubling the next dose
D. Reassure that this always occurs
Correct answer: A. Promptly evaluate and escalate concern for gastrointestinal bleeding
Detailed rationale: Melena can signal clinically important gastrointestinal bleeding on an anticoagulant.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
14. Which over-the-counter medication may raise bleeding risk with warfarin?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Plain moisturizing lotion
C. Saline nasal spray
D. Oral rehydration solution
Correct answer: A. Ibuprofen
Detailed rationale: NSAIDs increase bleeding risk, including gastrointestinal bleeding, when combined with
anticoagulants.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
15. A patient asks whether leafy greens must be entirely avoided with warfarin. What should the nurse teach?
A. Keep vitamin K intake reasonably consistent
B. Eliminate all vegetables permanently
C. Stop INR follow-up if diet is healthy
NUR 210 | Original educational practice resource • 2026–2027 | Page 3
NUR 210 Pharmacology Exam 2 Practice Exam
2026–2027 • 110 MCQs • Cardiovascular, respiratory, endocrine and anti-infective therapies
Emphasis: drug classes and therapeutic effects, safety monitoring, adverse reactions, patient education and medication
calculations.
USE & SCOPE
Independent practice questions, not an official test, answer key, or course syllabus. NUR 210 varies by school. Dose
calculations are educational examples, not prescribing directions. Verify medication orders, current labeling, facility policies,
monitoring thresholds and patient-specific factors in actual care.
PRACTICE EXAM: QUESTIONS, ANSWERS & RATIONALES
1. A patient on lisinopril develops swelling of the lips and tongue. What is the priority?
A. Give the next dose with food
B. Recommend a lozenge
C. Wait for the next routine visit
D. Stop the medication and obtain emergency airway evaluation
Correct answer: D. Stop the medication and obtain emergency airway evaluation
Detailed rationale: ACE inhibitor-associated angioedema can obstruct the airway and requires urgent attention.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
2. Which electrolyte disturbance is a concern with spironolactone?
A. Hypokalemia in all patients
B. Low calcium as the principal effect
C. Hypernatremia always
D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: D. Hyperkalemia
Detailed rationale: Spironolactone is potassium-sparing and can raise potassium, especially with kidney dysfunction or
interacting drugs.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
3. A patient receives furosemide. Which finding most strongly suggests excessive diuresis?
A. Persistent crackles from overload
B. Dizziness with low blood pressure and reduced volume status
C. New weight gain and edema
D. Increasing central venous pressure
Correct answer: B. Dizziness with low blood pressure and reduced volume status
Detailed rationale: Volume depletion can cause orthostasis, hypotension, and kidney injury.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
4. Which finding warrants assessment before administering metoprolol?
A. Mild hunger
B. Dry skin without symptoms
C. Normal body temperature
D. Marked bradycardia with dizziness
Correct answer: D. Marked bradycardia with dizziness
Detailed rationale: Beta blockers decrease heart rate and can worsen symptomatic bradycardia; hold parameters must
follow the order and local policy.
NUR 210 | Original educational practice resource • 2026–2027 | Page 1
, NUR 210 • PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE SERIES
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
5. Which instruction is appropriate for a patient starting sublingual nitroglycerin for prescribed angina?
A. Sit down before a dose because hypotension and dizziness may occur
B. Take it with sildenafil for better relief
C. Swallow it whole instead of using the ordered route
D. Use it to replace emergency evaluation of persistent chest pain
Correct answer: A. Sit down before a dose because hypotension and dizziness may occur
Detailed rationale: Nitroglycerin can lower blood pressure; phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors may cause dangerous
hypotension when combined.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
6. A patient taking digoxin has nausea, visual changes, and an irregular pulse. What is the best action?
A. Assume the symptoms are harmless
B. Withhold the dose and promptly assess for toxicity and notify the prescriber
C. Give an extra dose
D. Encourage double dosing tomorrow
Correct answer: B. Withhold the dose and promptly assess for toxicity and notify the prescriber
Detailed rationale: These findings are compatible with digoxin toxicity, particularly with electrolyte abnormalities or
renal impairment.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
7. Which laboratory value should the nurse review closely when giving an ACE inhibitor?
A. Serum bilirubin only
B. Serum potassium
C. Platelet count only
D. Serum lipase only
Correct answer: B. Serum potassium
Detailed rationale: ACE inhibitors may elevate potassium and affect kidney function; potassium and creatinine are
commonly monitored.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
8. A patient on a statin reports severe muscle pain and dark urine. What is the concern?
A. A reason to double the statin dose
B. A sign that cholesterol is normal
C. Possible muscle injury requiring urgent evaluation
D. Expected harmless exercise soreness
Correct answer: C. Possible muscle injury requiring urgent evaluation
Detailed rationale: Marked myalgia with dark urine can indicate rhabdomyolysis, a potentially serious adverse effect.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
9. Which instruction is essential with a prescribed potassium supplement?
A. Ignore kidney function
B. Do not add salt substitutes containing potassium without checking first
C. Double the dose when a meal is missed
D. Crush any modified-release form
Correct answer: B. Do not add salt substitutes containing potassium without checking first
Detailed rationale: Potassium-containing salt substitutes may contribute to dangerous hyperkalemia.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
NUR 210 | Original educational practice resource • 2026–2027 | Page 2
, NUR 210 • PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE SERIES
10. A patient on amlodipine develops mild bilateral ankle edema. Which explanation is most accurate?
A. Peripheral edema is a recognized calcium-channel blocker adverse effect
B. It is a therapeutic anticoagulant effect
C. It proves acute kidney failure
D. It always means infection
Correct answer: A. Peripheral edema is a recognized calcium-channel blocker adverse effect
Detailed rationale: Dihydropyridine calcium-channel blockers can cause peripheral edema through arteriolar dilation.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
11. A patient on warfarin asks why INR is checked. Which response is best?
A. It measures blood glucose
B. It diagnoses all clots
C. It helps monitor warfarin's anticoagulant effect
D. It directly measures platelet count
Correct answer: C. It helps monitor warfarin's anticoagulant effect
Detailed rationale: INR helps guide vitamin K antagonist therapy and bleeding-risk management.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
12. A patient on unfractionated heparin develops a major platelet decrease and new thrombosis. What is suspected?
A. Iron-deficiency anemia only
B. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
C. Expected heparin efficacy
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency
Correct answer: B. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
Detailed rationale: HIT is an immune prothrombotic complication; urgent evaluation and changes in anticoagulation are
needed.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
13. A patient taking apixaban reports black tarry stools. What should the nurse do?
A. Promptly evaluate and escalate concern for gastrointestinal bleeding
B. Assume it is caused by fluid retention
C. Advise doubling the next dose
D. Reassure that this always occurs
Correct answer: A. Promptly evaluate and escalate concern for gastrointestinal bleeding
Detailed rationale: Melena can signal clinically important gastrointestinal bleeding on an anticoagulant.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
14. Which over-the-counter medication may raise bleeding risk with warfarin?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Plain moisturizing lotion
C. Saline nasal spray
D. Oral rehydration solution
Correct answer: A. Ibuprofen
Detailed rationale: NSAIDs increase bleeding risk, including gastrointestinal bleeding, when combined with
anticoagulants.
Why other options are incorrect: The remaining options are unsafe, unrelated, or inconsistent with the stated drug
mechanism/assessment.
15. A patient asks whether leafy greens must be entirely avoided with warfarin. What should the nurse teach?
A. Keep vitamin K intake reasonably consistent
B. Eliminate all vegetables permanently
C. Stop INR follow-up if diet is healthy
NUR 210 | Original educational practice resource • 2026–2027 | Page 3
