ATI Nursing Skills 2026/2027 | ACTUAL-Style
Practice Questions & Answers, ATI RN Nursing
Skills Exam Prep, Nursing Procedures Test Bank,
Sterile Technique, Infection Control, Vital Signs,
Wound Care, Urinary Catheterization, Specimen
Collection, Medication Administration, Patient
Safety, and Detailed Rationales
Question 1: A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion.
Which intravenous solution should the nurse use to prime the tubing?
A. 5% dextrose in water
B. Lactated Ringer's solution
C. 0.9% sodium chloride
D. 5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 0.9% sodium chloride
Rationale: Normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride) is the only intravenous
solution compatible with blood components. Dextrose solutions can cause
hemolysis of red blood cells, and Lactated Ringer's contains calcium which
can cause clotting in the blood tubing.
Question 2: A nurse is caring for a client with an indwelling urinary
catheter. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?
A. Self-care deficit
B. Functional incontinence
C. Fluid volume deficit
D. Risk for infection
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Risk for infection
Rationale: Indwelling urinary catheters are a major source of nosocomial
infections. Preventing infection is the highest priority because catheter-
associated urinary tract infections can lead to urosepsis and life-
threatening complications. Self-care deficit and functional incontinence
are lower priority concerns, and fluid volume deficit is not directly caused
by an indwelling catheter.
Question 3: A nurse is administering ear drops to an adult client. Which
action should the nurse take?
,A. Pull the auricle down and back
B. Pull the auricle up and back
C. Hold the dropper 3 cm above the ear canal
D. Place a cotton ball deeply into the ear canal after instillation
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Pull the auricle up and back
Rationale: For an adult client, the nurse should pull the auricle up and back
to straighten the ear canal and allow the medication to reach the tympanic
membrane. Pulling down and back is appropriate for children younger than
3 years. The dropper should be held 1 cm above the ear canal, and a cotton
ball should be placed loosely at the outermost canal, not deeply.
Question 4: A nurse is teaching a client about proper use of a metered-
dose inhaler. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. "Fill your lungs with air through your mouth and then compress the
inhaler."
B. "Compress the inhaler while slowly breathing in through your mouth."
C. "Compress the inhaler while inhaling quickly through your nose."
D. "Exhale completely after compressing the inhaler and then inhale."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "Compress the inhaler while slowly breathing in
through your mouth."
Rationale: The medication should be inhaled through the mouth
simultaneously with compression of the inhaler. This technique facilitates
delivery of the aerosolized medication deep into the lungs for optimal
bronchodilation. Inhaling through the nose or after compressing the inhaler
does not allow for deep lung penetration.
Question 5: A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for
furosemide. Which food should the nurse recommend as a good source
of potassium?
A. Cheddar cheese
B. Cooked carrots
C. Bananas
D. 2% milk
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Bananas
,Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss.
Bananas are an excellent dietary source of potassium and should be
recommended to clients taking furosemide to prevent hypokalemia.
Cheddar cheese and milk are high in calcium and phosphorus, and cooked
carrots are not a significant source of potassium.
Question 6: A nurse is assessing a client who has fluid volume deficit.
Which finding should the nurse expect?
A. Bounding pulse
B. Hypertension
C. Decreased urine output
D. Crackles in the lungs
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Decreased urine output
Rationale: Fluid volume deficit leads to decreased circulating blood
volume, which triggers the kidneys to conserve water, resulting in
decreased urine output. Bounding pulse, hypertension, and crackles in the
lungs are manifestations of fluid volume excess, not deficit.
Question 7: A nurse is caring for a client receiving opioid analgesics
who is difficult to arouse and has a respiratory rate of 7/min. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer naloxone
B. Notify the healthcare provider
C. Document the findings
D. Provide oxygen only
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Administer naloxone
Rationale: Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that reverses opioid-
induced respiratory depression and sedation. This is a life-threatening
emergency requiring immediate reversal. Notifying the provider and
documenting can occur after the client is stabilized.
Question 8: A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client.
Which action should the nurse take first to ensure client safety?
A. Check the client's allergy band
B. Verify the client's identity using two identifiers
, C. Review the medication administration record
D. Perform hand hygiene
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Verify the client's identity using two identifiers
Rationale: According to National Patient Safety Goals, verifying client
identity using two unique identifiers is the first critical step before any
medication administration to prevent wrong-patient errors. While hand
hygiene and reviewing the MAR are important, identity verification is the
priority safety action.
Question 9: A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 3 pressure injury
on the sacrum. Which finding indicates the wound is healing?
A. Presence of yellow slough in the wound bed
B. Increase in wound drainage amount
C. Formation of granulation tissue
D. Expansion of wound edges
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Formation of granulation tissue
Rationale: Granulation tissue (beefy red, bumpy tissue) is a key indicator of
wound healing in stage 3 pressure injuries. Yellow slough, increased
drainage, and expanding wound edges are signs of infection or poor healing
and should be reported to the provider.
Question 10: A nurse is teaching a client about a low-sodium diet.
Which food should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
A. Fresh apples
B. Canned soup
C. Steamed broccoli
D. Grilled chicken
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Canned soup
Rationale: Canned soups are highly processed and typically contain large
amounts of added sodium, making them inappropriate for a low-sodium
diet. Fresh apples, steamed broccoli, and grilled chicken are naturally low
in sodium and appropriate for clients on sodium restriction.
Question 11: A nurse is calculating intake for a client. The record
includes: 1200 mL water, 4 oz gelatin, 8 oz orange juice, 355 mL soda,
and 1 cup soup. How many mL should the nurse document?
Practice Questions & Answers, ATI RN Nursing
Skills Exam Prep, Nursing Procedures Test Bank,
Sterile Technique, Infection Control, Vital Signs,
Wound Care, Urinary Catheterization, Specimen
Collection, Medication Administration, Patient
Safety, and Detailed Rationales
Question 1: A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion.
Which intravenous solution should the nurse use to prime the tubing?
A. 5% dextrose in water
B. Lactated Ringer's solution
C. 0.9% sodium chloride
D. 5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 0.9% sodium chloride
Rationale: Normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride) is the only intravenous
solution compatible with blood components. Dextrose solutions can cause
hemolysis of red blood cells, and Lactated Ringer's contains calcium which
can cause clotting in the blood tubing.
Question 2: A nurse is caring for a client with an indwelling urinary
catheter. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?
A. Self-care deficit
B. Functional incontinence
C. Fluid volume deficit
D. Risk for infection
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Risk for infection
Rationale: Indwelling urinary catheters are a major source of nosocomial
infections. Preventing infection is the highest priority because catheter-
associated urinary tract infections can lead to urosepsis and life-
threatening complications. Self-care deficit and functional incontinence
are lower priority concerns, and fluid volume deficit is not directly caused
by an indwelling catheter.
Question 3: A nurse is administering ear drops to an adult client. Which
action should the nurse take?
,A. Pull the auricle down and back
B. Pull the auricle up and back
C. Hold the dropper 3 cm above the ear canal
D. Place a cotton ball deeply into the ear canal after instillation
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Pull the auricle up and back
Rationale: For an adult client, the nurse should pull the auricle up and back
to straighten the ear canal and allow the medication to reach the tympanic
membrane. Pulling down and back is appropriate for children younger than
3 years. The dropper should be held 1 cm above the ear canal, and a cotton
ball should be placed loosely at the outermost canal, not deeply.
Question 4: A nurse is teaching a client about proper use of a metered-
dose inhaler. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A. "Fill your lungs with air through your mouth and then compress the
inhaler."
B. "Compress the inhaler while slowly breathing in through your mouth."
C. "Compress the inhaler while inhaling quickly through your nose."
D. "Exhale completely after compressing the inhaler and then inhale."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "Compress the inhaler while slowly breathing in
through your mouth."
Rationale: The medication should be inhaled through the mouth
simultaneously with compression of the inhaler. This technique facilitates
delivery of the aerosolized medication deep into the lungs for optimal
bronchodilation. Inhaling through the nose or after compressing the inhaler
does not allow for deep lung penetration.
Question 5: A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for
furosemide. Which food should the nurse recommend as a good source
of potassium?
A. Cheddar cheese
B. Cooked carrots
C. Bananas
D. 2% milk
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Bananas
,Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss.
Bananas are an excellent dietary source of potassium and should be
recommended to clients taking furosemide to prevent hypokalemia.
Cheddar cheese and milk are high in calcium and phosphorus, and cooked
carrots are not a significant source of potassium.
Question 6: A nurse is assessing a client who has fluid volume deficit.
Which finding should the nurse expect?
A. Bounding pulse
B. Hypertension
C. Decreased urine output
D. Crackles in the lungs
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Decreased urine output
Rationale: Fluid volume deficit leads to decreased circulating blood
volume, which triggers the kidneys to conserve water, resulting in
decreased urine output. Bounding pulse, hypertension, and crackles in the
lungs are manifestations of fluid volume excess, not deficit.
Question 7: A nurse is caring for a client receiving opioid analgesics
who is difficult to arouse and has a respiratory rate of 7/min. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer naloxone
B. Notify the healthcare provider
C. Document the findings
D. Provide oxygen only
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Administer naloxone
Rationale: Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that reverses opioid-
induced respiratory depression and sedation. This is a life-threatening
emergency requiring immediate reversal. Notifying the provider and
documenting can occur after the client is stabilized.
Question 8: A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client.
Which action should the nurse take first to ensure client safety?
A. Check the client's allergy band
B. Verify the client's identity using two identifiers
, C. Review the medication administration record
D. Perform hand hygiene
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Verify the client's identity using two identifiers
Rationale: According to National Patient Safety Goals, verifying client
identity using two unique identifiers is the first critical step before any
medication administration to prevent wrong-patient errors. While hand
hygiene and reviewing the MAR are important, identity verification is the
priority safety action.
Question 9: A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 3 pressure injury
on the sacrum. Which finding indicates the wound is healing?
A. Presence of yellow slough in the wound bed
B. Increase in wound drainage amount
C. Formation of granulation tissue
D. Expansion of wound edges
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Formation of granulation tissue
Rationale: Granulation tissue (beefy red, bumpy tissue) is a key indicator of
wound healing in stage 3 pressure injuries. Yellow slough, increased
drainage, and expanding wound edges are signs of infection or poor healing
and should be reported to the provider.
Question 10: A nurse is teaching a client about a low-sodium diet.
Which food should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
A. Fresh apples
B. Canned soup
C. Steamed broccoli
D. Grilled chicken
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Canned soup
Rationale: Canned soups are highly processed and typically contain large
amounts of added sodium, making them inappropriate for a low-sodium
diet. Fresh apples, steamed broccoli, and grilled chicken are naturally low
in sodium and appropriate for clients on sodium restriction.
Question 11: A nurse is calculating intake for a client. The record
includes: 1200 mL water, 4 oz gelatin, 8 oz orange juice, 355 mL soda,
and 1 cup soup. How many mL should the nurse document?
