ATI Maternal Newborn Test Bank 2026/2027 | ACTUAL-
Style Practice Questions & Answers, ATI RN Maternal
Newborn Nursing Exam Prep, Pregnancy, Labor and
Delivery, High-Risk Pregnancy, Fetal Heart Rate
Monitoring, Postpartum Complications, Newborn
Assessment, Obstetric Medications, Clinical Judgment,
and Detailed Rationales
Question 1: A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery for a
client whose last menstrual period began on April 10, 2026. Using
Naegele's rule, which date should the nurse calculate as the EDD?
A. January 10, 2027
B. January 17, 2027
C. January 24, 2027
D. February 17, 2027
CORRECT ANSWER: B. January 17, 2027
Rationale: Naegele's rule calculates the EDD by subtracting 3 months from
the first day of the LMP and adding 7 days. April 10 minus 3 months equals
January 10; adding 7 days yields January 17, 2027. This calculation
assumes a 28-day menstrual cycle with ovulation occurring on day 14.
Question 2: A client is pregnant for the fifth time. She has delivered two
children at 39 weeks, one at 34 weeks, and had one spontaneous
abortion at 10 weeks. She has three living children. Which GTPAL
designation should the nurse document?
A. G5 T2 P1 A1 L3
B. G5 T3 P0 A1 L3
C. G4 T2 P1 A1 L3
D. G5 T2 P2 A0 L3
CORRECT ANSWER: A. G5 T2 P1 A1 L3
Rationale: Gravida (G) counts all pregnancies, including the current one: 5.
Term (T) counts births at 37 weeks or greater: 2. Preterm (P) counts births
between 20 and 36 6/7 weeks: 1. Abortions (A) counts losses before 20
weeks: 1. Living (L) counts current living children: 3. The current pregnancy
is counted only in gravida.
Question 3: A nurse is assessing a client at 28 weeks of gestation.
Which fundal height measurement should the nurse expect to find?
,A. 24 cm
B. 26 cm
C. 28 cm
D. 32 cm
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 28 cm
Rationale: Between 20 and 36 weeks of gestation, the fundal height in
centimeters should approximate the gestational age in weeks, with a
variance of plus or minus 2 cm. At 28 weeks, a measurement of 28 cm is
expected. Measurements significantly above or below this range may
indicate growth abnormalities, incorrect dating, or multifetal gestation.
Question 4: A nurse is preparing to auscultate fetal heart tones using a
handheld Doppler device. At which gestational age should the nurse
typically first detect fetal heart tones with this device?
A. 6 to 8 weeks
B. 10 to 12 weeks
C. 14 to 16 weeks
D. 18 to 20 weeks
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 10 to 12 weeks
Rationale: Fetal heart tones are typically first audible via handheld Doppler
at 10 to 12 weeks of gestation. Before 10 weeks, transvaginal ultrasound is
required for detection. The normal baseline fetal heart rate is 110 to 160
beats per minute.
Question 5: A nurse is reviewing maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
screening with a client at 16 weeks of gestation. The nurse should
explain that this test screens for which condition?
A. Gestational diabetes
B. Neural tube defects
C. Group B streptococcus
D. Chromosomal abnormalities
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Neural tube defects
Rationale: Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein screening is performed
between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation to detect open neural tube defects
such as spina bifida and anencephaly. Elevated levels suggest neural tube
,defects. This test does not screen for gestational diabetes, group B
streptococcus, or chromosomal abnormalities.
Question 6: A client at 20 weeks of gestation reports a thick, white,
curd-like vaginal discharge accompanied by vulvar itching. Which
condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Bacterial vaginosis
B. Candidiasis
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Gonorrhea
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Candidiasis
Rationale: Candidiasis presents with thick, white, curd-like vaginal
discharge and vulvar pruritus. Bacterial vaginosis typically presents with
thin, gray, fishy-smelling discharge. Trichomoniasis produces a frothy,
yellow-green discharge. Gonorrhea is often asymptomatic or produces
purulent discharge without the characteristic curd-like appearance.
Question 7: A nurse is teaching a client at 32 weeks of gestation about
warning signs that require immediate notification of the provider.
Which finding should the nurse include?
A. Occasional Braxton-Hicks contractions
B. Blurred vision and severe headache
C. Mild ankle edema at the end of the day
D. Fetal heart rate of 140 beats per minute
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Blurred vision and severe headache
Rationale: Blurred vision and severe headache are warning signs of
preeclampsia and require immediate evaluation. Occasional Braxton-
Hicks contractions, mild ankle edema, and a fetal heart rate of 140 beats
per minute are expected findings in a normal pregnancy.
Question 8: A nurse is performing a non-stress test on a client at 36
weeks of gestation. Which finding should the nurse interpret as
reactive?
A. Two accelerations of 15 beats per minute lasting 15 seconds within 20
minutes
B. No accelerations within 40 minutes
, C. Late decelerations following contractions
D. Baseline of 100 beats per minute with minimal variability
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Two accelerations of 15 beats per minute lasting
15 seconds within 20 minutes
Rationale: A reactive non-stress test is defined as two or more fetal heart
rate accelerations of at least 15 beats per minute above baseline lasting at
least 15 seconds within a 20-minute period. This indicates fetal well-being.
Absence of accelerations suggests fetal distress and requires further
evaluation.
Question 9: A nurse is caring for a client at 34 weeks of gestation who is
receiving terbutaline for preterm labor. Which client statement should
the nurse identify as the priority?
A. "My ankles are swollen at the end of the day."
B. "My heart feels like it is racing."
C. "I can feel the baby kicking my ribs."
D. "I am growing more worried every day."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "My heart feels like it is racing."
Rationale: Terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic agonist that causes smooth
muscle relaxation and can cause maternal tachycardia. If the maternal
pulse exceeds 130 beats per minute, the medication should be held and
the provider notified. Palpitations indicate a potentially serious adverse
effect requiring immediate intervention.
Question 10: A nurse is caring for a client at 36 weeks of gestation who
reports painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which condition should
the nurse suspect?
A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Uterine rupture
D. Vasa previa
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Placenta previa
Rationale: Placenta previa classically presents with painless, bright red
vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. Abruptio placentae presents with
painful, dark red bleeding and a rigid abdomen. Uterine rupture is
Style Practice Questions & Answers, ATI RN Maternal
Newborn Nursing Exam Prep, Pregnancy, Labor and
Delivery, High-Risk Pregnancy, Fetal Heart Rate
Monitoring, Postpartum Complications, Newborn
Assessment, Obstetric Medications, Clinical Judgment,
and Detailed Rationales
Question 1: A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery for a
client whose last menstrual period began on April 10, 2026. Using
Naegele's rule, which date should the nurse calculate as the EDD?
A. January 10, 2027
B. January 17, 2027
C. January 24, 2027
D. February 17, 2027
CORRECT ANSWER: B. January 17, 2027
Rationale: Naegele's rule calculates the EDD by subtracting 3 months from
the first day of the LMP and adding 7 days. April 10 minus 3 months equals
January 10; adding 7 days yields January 17, 2027. This calculation
assumes a 28-day menstrual cycle with ovulation occurring on day 14.
Question 2: A client is pregnant for the fifth time. She has delivered two
children at 39 weeks, one at 34 weeks, and had one spontaneous
abortion at 10 weeks. She has three living children. Which GTPAL
designation should the nurse document?
A. G5 T2 P1 A1 L3
B. G5 T3 P0 A1 L3
C. G4 T2 P1 A1 L3
D. G5 T2 P2 A0 L3
CORRECT ANSWER: A. G5 T2 P1 A1 L3
Rationale: Gravida (G) counts all pregnancies, including the current one: 5.
Term (T) counts births at 37 weeks or greater: 2. Preterm (P) counts births
between 20 and 36 6/7 weeks: 1. Abortions (A) counts losses before 20
weeks: 1. Living (L) counts current living children: 3. The current pregnancy
is counted only in gravida.
Question 3: A nurse is assessing a client at 28 weeks of gestation.
Which fundal height measurement should the nurse expect to find?
,A. 24 cm
B. 26 cm
C. 28 cm
D. 32 cm
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 28 cm
Rationale: Between 20 and 36 weeks of gestation, the fundal height in
centimeters should approximate the gestational age in weeks, with a
variance of plus or minus 2 cm. At 28 weeks, a measurement of 28 cm is
expected. Measurements significantly above or below this range may
indicate growth abnormalities, incorrect dating, or multifetal gestation.
Question 4: A nurse is preparing to auscultate fetal heart tones using a
handheld Doppler device. At which gestational age should the nurse
typically first detect fetal heart tones with this device?
A. 6 to 8 weeks
B. 10 to 12 weeks
C. 14 to 16 weeks
D. 18 to 20 weeks
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 10 to 12 weeks
Rationale: Fetal heart tones are typically first audible via handheld Doppler
at 10 to 12 weeks of gestation. Before 10 weeks, transvaginal ultrasound is
required for detection. The normal baseline fetal heart rate is 110 to 160
beats per minute.
Question 5: A nurse is reviewing maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
screening with a client at 16 weeks of gestation. The nurse should
explain that this test screens for which condition?
A. Gestational diabetes
B. Neural tube defects
C. Group B streptococcus
D. Chromosomal abnormalities
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Neural tube defects
Rationale: Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein screening is performed
between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation to detect open neural tube defects
such as spina bifida and anencephaly. Elevated levels suggest neural tube
,defects. This test does not screen for gestational diabetes, group B
streptococcus, or chromosomal abnormalities.
Question 6: A client at 20 weeks of gestation reports a thick, white,
curd-like vaginal discharge accompanied by vulvar itching. Which
condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Bacterial vaginosis
B. Candidiasis
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Gonorrhea
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Candidiasis
Rationale: Candidiasis presents with thick, white, curd-like vaginal
discharge and vulvar pruritus. Bacterial vaginosis typically presents with
thin, gray, fishy-smelling discharge. Trichomoniasis produces a frothy,
yellow-green discharge. Gonorrhea is often asymptomatic or produces
purulent discharge without the characteristic curd-like appearance.
Question 7: A nurse is teaching a client at 32 weeks of gestation about
warning signs that require immediate notification of the provider.
Which finding should the nurse include?
A. Occasional Braxton-Hicks contractions
B. Blurred vision and severe headache
C. Mild ankle edema at the end of the day
D. Fetal heart rate of 140 beats per minute
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Blurred vision and severe headache
Rationale: Blurred vision and severe headache are warning signs of
preeclampsia and require immediate evaluation. Occasional Braxton-
Hicks contractions, mild ankle edema, and a fetal heart rate of 140 beats
per minute are expected findings in a normal pregnancy.
Question 8: A nurse is performing a non-stress test on a client at 36
weeks of gestation. Which finding should the nurse interpret as
reactive?
A. Two accelerations of 15 beats per minute lasting 15 seconds within 20
minutes
B. No accelerations within 40 minutes
, C. Late decelerations following contractions
D. Baseline of 100 beats per minute with minimal variability
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Two accelerations of 15 beats per minute lasting
15 seconds within 20 minutes
Rationale: A reactive non-stress test is defined as two or more fetal heart
rate accelerations of at least 15 beats per minute above baseline lasting at
least 15 seconds within a 20-minute period. This indicates fetal well-being.
Absence of accelerations suggests fetal distress and requires further
evaluation.
Question 9: A nurse is caring for a client at 34 weeks of gestation who is
receiving terbutaline for preterm labor. Which client statement should
the nurse identify as the priority?
A. "My ankles are swollen at the end of the day."
B. "My heart feels like it is racing."
C. "I can feel the baby kicking my ribs."
D. "I am growing more worried every day."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "My heart feels like it is racing."
Rationale: Terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic agonist that causes smooth
muscle relaxation and can cause maternal tachycardia. If the maternal
pulse exceeds 130 beats per minute, the medication should be held and
the provider notified. Palpitations indicate a potentially serious adverse
effect requiring immediate intervention.
Question 10: A nurse is caring for a client at 36 weeks of gestation who
reports painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which condition should
the nurse suspect?
A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Uterine rupture
D. Vasa previa
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Placenta previa
Rationale: Placenta previa classically presents with painless, bright red
vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. Abruptio placentae presents with
painful, dark red bleeding and a rigid abdomen. Uterine rupture is
