NSG 124 Exam 3 Actual Exam V2 | NSG 124 Pharmacology (NSG124
Exam 3) | Herzing University PDF
1. A patient with Type 1 Diabetes is prescribed Lispro (Humalog) insulin. When should the
nurse instruct the patient to administer this medication?
A. 30 to 60 minutes before a meal
B. Immediately before or within 15 minutes of eating
C. Only when blood glucose is above 200 mg/dL
D. At bedtime to cover overnight needs
Answer: B
Rationale: Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with an onset of action within 15 minutes. It is
critical that the patient eats immediately after administration to prevent a rapid drop in
blood glucose. The nurse should ensure the meal tray is present before the injection is
given.
2. A patient is receiving morphine sulfate for post-operative pain. The nurse notes a
respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. Which medication should the nurse prepare to
administer?
A. Flumazenil
B. Acetylcysteine
C. Naloxone
D. Protamine sulfate
Answer: C
Rationale: Naloxone is the specific antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory
depression. The nurse must monitor the patient closely as the duration of morphine may
exceed the duration of naloxone. Maintaining airway and providing supplemental oxygen
are also priority interventions in this scenario.
3. A patient is newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism and started on Levothyroxine
(Synthroid). What is the most important teaching point regarding administration?
A. Take the medication with a full meal to prevent GI upset
B. Take the medication at bedtime with a glass of milk
C. Take the medication only when feeling symptoms of fatigue
D. Take the medication on an empty stomach 30-60 minutes before breakfast
,Answer: D
Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach to ensure
optimal absorption. Co-administration with food or calcium can significantly decrease the
bioavailability of the drug. Consistency in administration time is vital for maintaining stable
therapeutic thyroid levels.
4. A nurse is caring for a patient taking Metformin (Glucophage). Which diagnostic test should
the nurse ensure is scheduled or reviewed before a contrast-enhanced CT scan?
A. Liver function tests
B. Serum creatinine
C. Hemoglobin A1c
D. Thyroid stimulating hormone
Answer: B
Rationale: Metformin can lead to lactic acidosis, especially if renal function is impaired.
Iodinated contrast dye can cause acute kidney injury, which increases the risk of metformin
accumulation. The medication is typically held for 48 hours following the procedure until
renal function is confirmed normal.
5. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed Tiotropium
(Spiriva). What is the mechanism of action for this medication?
A. Stimulation of beta-2 adrenergic receptors
B. Suppression of the cough reflex in the medulla
C. Reduction of systemic inflammation via corticosteroids
D. Inhibition of muscarinic receptors in the airway
Answer: D
Rationale: Tiotropium is a long-acting anticholinergic medication that blocks muscarinic
receptors. This action leads to bronchodilation by preventing acetylcholine from causing
smooth muscle contraction. It is used for maintenance treatment and not as a rescue
inhaler for acute distress.
6. A patient is prescribed Sucralfate (Carafate) for a duodenal ulcer. When is the most
effective time for the nurse to administer this medication?
A. With meals to aid in digestion
B. Only when the patient experiences epigastric pain
C. One hour before meals and at bedtime
D. Immediately after taking an antacid
, Answer: C
Rationale: Sucralfate works by creating a protective barrier or ‘paste’ over the ulcer site to
protect it from acid and pepsin. It requires an acidic environment to activate and should be
taken on an empty stomach. The nurse should also separate administration from other
medications to avoid decreased absorption.
7. Which assessment finding in a patient taking Albuterol (Proventil) would the nurse identify
as a common side effect?
A. Bradycardia and lethargy
B. Tachycardia and tremors
C. Hypoglycemia and thirst
D. Constipation and urinary retention
Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol is a sympathomimetic bronchodilator that stimulates beta-2
receptors but can also have minor beta-1 effects. This stimulation often results in increased
heart rate and skeletal muscle tremors. The nurse should monitor the patient’s heart rate
and reassure them that these effects are usually transient.
8. A patient is prescribed Omeprazole (Prilosec) for GERD. The nurse should instruct the
patient to monitor for which long-term complication?
A. Hypermagnesemia
B. Osteoporosis and fractures
C. Weight gain
D. Increased risk of viral pneumonia
Answer: B
Rationale: Long-term use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) like Omeprazole is associated
with decreased calcium absorption. This can lead to increased risks of bone density loss
and hip fractures. Patients are often encouraged to take calcium and vitamin D
supplements while on long-term PPI therapy.
9. A patient is receiving NPH insulin at 0800. At what time is the patient most likely to
experience hypoglycemia?
A. 0900 to 1000
B. 2200 to 0200
C. 1400 to 2000
D. 0830 to 0900
Exam 3) | Herzing University PDF
1. A patient with Type 1 Diabetes is prescribed Lispro (Humalog) insulin. When should the
nurse instruct the patient to administer this medication?
A. 30 to 60 minutes before a meal
B. Immediately before or within 15 minutes of eating
C. Only when blood glucose is above 200 mg/dL
D. At bedtime to cover overnight needs
Answer: B
Rationale: Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with an onset of action within 15 minutes. It is
critical that the patient eats immediately after administration to prevent a rapid drop in
blood glucose. The nurse should ensure the meal tray is present before the injection is
given.
2. A patient is receiving morphine sulfate for post-operative pain. The nurse notes a
respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. Which medication should the nurse prepare to
administer?
A. Flumazenil
B. Acetylcysteine
C. Naloxone
D. Protamine sulfate
Answer: C
Rationale: Naloxone is the specific antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory
depression. The nurse must monitor the patient closely as the duration of morphine may
exceed the duration of naloxone. Maintaining airway and providing supplemental oxygen
are also priority interventions in this scenario.
3. A patient is newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism and started on Levothyroxine
(Synthroid). What is the most important teaching point regarding administration?
A. Take the medication with a full meal to prevent GI upset
B. Take the medication at bedtime with a glass of milk
C. Take the medication only when feeling symptoms of fatigue
D. Take the medication on an empty stomach 30-60 minutes before breakfast
,Answer: D
Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach to ensure
optimal absorption. Co-administration with food or calcium can significantly decrease the
bioavailability of the drug. Consistency in administration time is vital for maintaining stable
therapeutic thyroid levels.
4. A nurse is caring for a patient taking Metformin (Glucophage). Which diagnostic test should
the nurse ensure is scheduled or reviewed before a contrast-enhanced CT scan?
A. Liver function tests
B. Serum creatinine
C. Hemoglobin A1c
D. Thyroid stimulating hormone
Answer: B
Rationale: Metformin can lead to lactic acidosis, especially if renal function is impaired.
Iodinated contrast dye can cause acute kidney injury, which increases the risk of metformin
accumulation. The medication is typically held for 48 hours following the procedure until
renal function is confirmed normal.
5. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed Tiotropium
(Spiriva). What is the mechanism of action for this medication?
A. Stimulation of beta-2 adrenergic receptors
B. Suppression of the cough reflex in the medulla
C. Reduction of systemic inflammation via corticosteroids
D. Inhibition of muscarinic receptors in the airway
Answer: D
Rationale: Tiotropium is a long-acting anticholinergic medication that blocks muscarinic
receptors. This action leads to bronchodilation by preventing acetylcholine from causing
smooth muscle contraction. It is used for maintenance treatment and not as a rescue
inhaler for acute distress.
6. A patient is prescribed Sucralfate (Carafate) for a duodenal ulcer. When is the most
effective time for the nurse to administer this medication?
A. With meals to aid in digestion
B. Only when the patient experiences epigastric pain
C. One hour before meals and at bedtime
D. Immediately after taking an antacid
, Answer: C
Rationale: Sucralfate works by creating a protective barrier or ‘paste’ over the ulcer site to
protect it from acid and pepsin. It requires an acidic environment to activate and should be
taken on an empty stomach. The nurse should also separate administration from other
medications to avoid decreased absorption.
7. Which assessment finding in a patient taking Albuterol (Proventil) would the nurse identify
as a common side effect?
A. Bradycardia and lethargy
B. Tachycardia and tremors
C. Hypoglycemia and thirst
D. Constipation and urinary retention
Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol is a sympathomimetic bronchodilator that stimulates beta-2
receptors but can also have minor beta-1 effects. This stimulation often results in increased
heart rate and skeletal muscle tremors. The nurse should monitor the patient’s heart rate
and reassure them that these effects are usually transient.
8. A patient is prescribed Omeprazole (Prilosec) for GERD. The nurse should instruct the
patient to monitor for which long-term complication?
A. Hypermagnesemia
B. Osteoporosis and fractures
C. Weight gain
D. Increased risk of viral pneumonia
Answer: B
Rationale: Long-term use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) like Omeprazole is associated
with decreased calcium absorption. This can lead to increased risks of bone density loss
and hip fractures. Patients are often encouraged to take calcium and vitamin D
supplements while on long-term PPI therapy.
9. A patient is receiving NPH insulin at 0800. At what time is the patient most likely to
experience hypoglycemia?
A. 0900 to 1000
B. 2200 to 0200
C. 1400 to 2000
D. 0830 to 0900
