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Exam (elaborations)

NR 507 Exam 1 Actual Exam V2 | NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology (NR507 Exam 1) [PDF] | Chamberlain University

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NR 507 Exam 1 Actual Exam V2 | NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology (NR507 Exam 1) [PDF] | Chamberlain University

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NR 507 Exam 1 Actual Exam V2 | NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology
(NR507 Exam 1) [PDF] | Chamberlain University
1. A 62-year-old male with a long history of cigarette smoking presents with a chronic cough.
A biopsy of his bronchial epithelium reveals that the normal ciliated columnar cells have been
replaced by stratified squamous epithelial cells. Which cellular adaptation is most likely
occurring?
A. Atrophy

B. Dysplasia

C. Hyperplasia

D. Metaplasia
Answer: D
Rationale: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another
mature cell type to better withstand chronic irritation. In smokers, the bronchial lining
adapts to toxic smoke by switching from fragile ciliated cells to tougher squamous cells.
While protective against physical damage, this adaptation results in the loss of the
mucociliary escalator, predisposing the patient to infections.

2. A 45-year-old female undergoes a biopsy for a breast lump. The pathology report describes
cells that are varied in size and shape with large, darkly stained nuclei and increased mitosis.
This description is most consistent with which process?
A. Dysplasia

B. Hypertrophy

C. Metaplasia

D. Atrophy

Answer: A
Rationale: Dysplasia refers to abnormal changes in the size, shape, and organization of
mature cells. It is often considered a precursor to cancer (pre-neoplastic) but does not
always progress to malignancy. The presence of pleomorphism and increased mitotic
activity are hallmark signs of dysplastic tissue reorganization.

3. During an experiment, a researcher observes that a cell population is undergoing
programmed cell death. The process involves chromatin condensation, DNA fragmentation,
and the activation of caspases without an inflammatory response. What is this process
called?
A. Coagulative necrosis

,B. Autophagy

C. Liquefactive necrosis

D. Apoptosis

Answer: D
Rationale: Apoptosis is an active, organized process of cellular self-destruction that avoids
triggering an inflammatory response. It involves the activation of a proteolytic cascade by
enzymes known as caspases, which dismantle the cell into apoptotic bodies. Unlike
necrosis, the cell membrane remains intact during apoptosis, preventing the release of
intracellular contents into the surrounding tissue.

4. A 70-year-old patient suffers a myocardial infarction. Laboratory tests show a significant
rise in serum creatine kinase and lactate dehydrogenase. These findings indicate that cell
death occurred via which mechanism?
A. Apoptosis

B. Autophagy

C. Necrosis

D. Hyperplasia

Answer: C
Rationale: Necrosis is characterized by the loss of membrane integrity and the leakage of
intracellular enzymes into the bloodstream. Following a myocardial infarction, cardiac
myocytes undergo coagulative necrosis due to severe ischemia and ATP depletion. The
presence of specific markers like creatine kinase in the blood is a direct clinical indicator of
irreversible plasma membrane damage.

5. A patient presents with a large area of tissue death in the brain following a stroke. The
area is soft, liquefied, and surrounded by a cyst-like wall. Which type of necrosis is most likely
present?
A. Caseous necrosis

B. Coagulative necrosis

C. Liquefactive necrosis

D. Fat necrosis
Answer: C
Rationale: Liquefactive necrosis typically occurs in the central nervous system because the
brain is rich in hydrolytic enzymes and lipids. As the neurons and glial cells die, enzymes
digest the tissue into a liquid mass, which is eventually walled off. This differs from

, coagulative necrosis where the structural architecture of the tissue is preserved for several
days.

6. A 5-year-old boy is diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Genetic testing confirms
a mutation that prevents the production of the protein dystrophin. This disease follows which
inheritance pattern?
A. Autosomal dominant

B. Autosomal recessive

C. X-linked recessive

D. Mitochondrial
Answer: C
Rationale: Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the
gene is located on the X chromosome. Males are primarily affected because they only have
one X chromosome, while females are usually asymptomatic carriers. This genetic defect
leads to progressive muscle degeneration due to the absence of the structural protein
dystrophin.

7. A patient is found to have a karyotype showing 45,X. The physical assessment reveals a
female with short stature, webbed neck, and lack of secondary sexual characteristics. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Turner syndrome

B. Down syndrome

C. Klinefelter syndrome

D. Edwards syndrome

Answer: A
Rationale: Turner syndrome is characterized by the presence of a single X chromosome
(monosomy X). Clinical features include short stature, a webbed neck (pterygium colli), and
underdeveloped ovaries leading to infertility. This condition occurs due to nondisjunction
during meiosis, resulting in a gamete missing a sex chromosome.

8. Which molecular mechanism involves the addition of a methyl group to the cytosine base
of DNA, typically resulting in the silencing of gene expression?
A. Histone acetylation

B. RNA interference

C. DNA methylation

D. Chromatin remodeling

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