VATI Comprehensive Predictor 2026 -
Study Guide & Practice Questions
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new tracheostomy. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take?
A. Suction the tracheostomy tube every 2 hours
B. Cleanse the stoma site with hydrogen peroxide
C. Change the tracheostomy ties when they become soiled
D. Inflate the cuff to 30 mmHg
Answer: C - Tracheostomy ties should be changed when soiled or loose. Suctioning
should be done only when needed (not routinely). Hydrogen peroxide is not
recommended for stoma care (use normal saline). Cuff pressure should be 15-25
mmHg.
---
2. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain the client's vital signs
B. Verify the blood product with another nurse
C. Prime the blood tubing with normal saline
D. Check the client's identification band
Answer: D - Always verify client identification FIRST using two identifiers before any
other step in the blood administration process.
---
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings. Which of
the following findings should the nurse identify as requiring immediate intervention?
A. Gastric residual volume of 150 mL
B. Absent bowel sounds in all four quadrants
C. The feeding bag is empty
D. The client is in a semi-Fowler's position
Answer: B - Absent bowel sounds may indicate a paralytic ileus or bowel obstruction,
which requires immediate intervention before continuing feedings.
---
4. A nurse is implementing contact precautions for a client who has Clostridium
difficile infection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
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, A. Wear a surgical mask when entering the room
B. Place the client in a negative-pressure room
C. Use soap and water for hand hygiene after removing gloves
D. Keep the door to the client's room closed at all times
Answer: C - C. difficile spores are not killed by alcohol-based hand sanitizers. Soap
and water must be used. Contact precautions require gloves and gown, not necessarily
mask or negative pressure.
---
5. A nurse is assessing a client following a fall. Which of the following findings should
the nurse identify as an indication of a possible fracture?
A. Swelling at the injury site
B. Ecchymosis at the injury site
C. Crepitus at the injury site
D. Redness at the injury site
Answer: C - Crepitus (a grating sound or sensation) is a classic sign of a fracture and
requires immediate immobilization and further assessment.
---
## HEALTH PROMOTION & MAINTENANCE
6. A nurse is providing teaching to the parent of a 2-month-old infant about
immunizations. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
A. "My baby will receive the hepatitis B vaccine at this visit."
B. "My baby will receive the MMR vaccine at this visit."
C. "My baby will receive the varicella vaccine at this visit."
D. "My baby will receive the polio vaccine at this visit."
Answer: D - At 2 months, the infant receives DTaP, IPV (polio), Hib, PCV13, Hep B (if not
already completed), and RV (rotavirus). MMR and varicella are given at 12 months.
---
7. A nurse is performing a developmental screening on a 4-year-old child. Which of the
following behaviors should the nurse expect the child to demonstrate?
A. Hop on one foot
B. Tie shoelaces
C. Draw a person with six body parts
D. Write their first name
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, Answer: C - A 4-year-old can typically draw a person with 3-6 body parts, hop on one
foot, and copy a circle. Tying shoelaces and writing their name are expected at age 5-6.
---
8. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is pregnant and has gestational
diabetes. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of
the teaching?
A. "I should eat three large meals per day."
B. "I should limit my carbohydrate intake to 50% of total calories."
C. "I should avoid all fruits during my pregnancy."
D. "I should skip breakfast to keep my blood sugar low."
Answer: B - Carbohydrates should be limited to 40-50% of total calories, distributed in
small, frequent meals throughout the day. Skipping meals can cause hypoglycemia or
ketosis.
---
9. A nurse is planning care for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is
experiencing pregnancy-induced hypertension. Which of the following interventions
should the nurse include in the plan?
A. Restrict fluid intake to 1,000 mL per day
B. Encourage bed rest in a lateral position
C. Increase dietary sodium intake
D. Limit protein intake to 40 grams per day
Answer: B - Lateral (left side-lying) position improves blood flow to the placenta and
kidneys. Fluid restriction is not typically recommended, sodium should not be
restricted or increased excessively, and protein intake should be adequate.
---
10. A nurse is assessing a 12-month-old infant during a well-child visit. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. The infant has 6 teeth
B. The infant cannot walk independently
C. The infant says "mama" and "dada"
D. The infant has a birth weight that has doubled
Answer: D - Birth weight should have TRIPLED by 12 months (not doubled). Six teeth,
walking with support, and saying mama/dada are all appropriate for this age.
---
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, ## PSYCHOSOCIAL INTEGRITY
11. A nurse is caring for a client who has major depressive disorder. Which of the
following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Flight of ideas
B. Hypersomnia
C. Decreased concentration
D. Euphoria
Answer: C - Major depressive disorder includes decreased concentration, insomnia
(not hypersomnia, though atypical depression can cause it), anhedonia, feelings of
worthlessness, and psychomotor retardation. Flight of ideas and euphoria are
associated with mania.
---
12. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has anorexia nervosa. Which of
the following interventions should the nurse include?
A. Allow the client to eat meals in their room
B. Monitor the client for 1 hour after meals
C. Weigh the client weekly
D. Provide high-calorie supplements between meals
Answer: B - The client should be monitored for at least 1 hour (or 2 hours) after meals
to prevent purging behaviors. Weighing should be daily (not weekly), meals should be
supervised, and supplements should be part of the meal plan (not hidden between
meals).
---
13. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which
of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?
A. Naloxone
B. Chlordiazepoxide
C. Disulfiram
D. Acamprosate
Answer: B - Benzodiazepines (like chlordiazepoxide or lorazepam) are the treatment of
choice for acute alcohol withdrawal to prevent seizures and delirium tremens.
Disulfiram and acamprosate are for maintaining sobriety, not acute withdrawal.
---
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Study Guide & Practice Questions
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new tracheostomy. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take?
A. Suction the tracheostomy tube every 2 hours
B. Cleanse the stoma site with hydrogen peroxide
C. Change the tracheostomy ties when they become soiled
D. Inflate the cuff to 30 mmHg
Answer: C - Tracheostomy ties should be changed when soiled or loose. Suctioning
should be done only when needed (not routinely). Hydrogen peroxide is not
recommended for stoma care (use normal saline). Cuff pressure should be 15-25
mmHg.
---
2. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain the client's vital signs
B. Verify the blood product with another nurse
C. Prime the blood tubing with normal saline
D. Check the client's identification band
Answer: D - Always verify client identification FIRST using two identifiers before any
other step in the blood administration process.
---
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings. Which of
the following findings should the nurse identify as requiring immediate intervention?
A. Gastric residual volume of 150 mL
B. Absent bowel sounds in all four quadrants
C. The feeding bag is empty
D. The client is in a semi-Fowler's position
Answer: B - Absent bowel sounds may indicate a paralytic ileus or bowel obstruction,
which requires immediate intervention before continuing feedings.
---
4. A nurse is implementing contact precautions for a client who has Clostridium
difficile infection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Professionally formatted study document Page 1
, A. Wear a surgical mask when entering the room
B. Place the client in a negative-pressure room
C. Use soap and water for hand hygiene after removing gloves
D. Keep the door to the client's room closed at all times
Answer: C - C. difficile spores are not killed by alcohol-based hand sanitizers. Soap
and water must be used. Contact precautions require gloves and gown, not necessarily
mask or negative pressure.
---
5. A nurse is assessing a client following a fall. Which of the following findings should
the nurse identify as an indication of a possible fracture?
A. Swelling at the injury site
B. Ecchymosis at the injury site
C. Crepitus at the injury site
D. Redness at the injury site
Answer: C - Crepitus (a grating sound or sensation) is a classic sign of a fracture and
requires immediate immobilization and further assessment.
---
## HEALTH PROMOTION & MAINTENANCE
6. A nurse is providing teaching to the parent of a 2-month-old infant about
immunizations. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
A. "My baby will receive the hepatitis B vaccine at this visit."
B. "My baby will receive the MMR vaccine at this visit."
C. "My baby will receive the varicella vaccine at this visit."
D. "My baby will receive the polio vaccine at this visit."
Answer: D - At 2 months, the infant receives DTaP, IPV (polio), Hib, PCV13, Hep B (if not
already completed), and RV (rotavirus). MMR and varicella are given at 12 months.
---
7. A nurse is performing a developmental screening on a 4-year-old child. Which of the
following behaviors should the nurse expect the child to demonstrate?
A. Hop on one foot
B. Tie shoelaces
C. Draw a person with six body parts
D. Write their first name
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, Answer: C - A 4-year-old can typically draw a person with 3-6 body parts, hop on one
foot, and copy a circle. Tying shoelaces and writing their name are expected at age 5-6.
---
8. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is pregnant and has gestational
diabetes. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of
the teaching?
A. "I should eat three large meals per day."
B. "I should limit my carbohydrate intake to 50% of total calories."
C. "I should avoid all fruits during my pregnancy."
D. "I should skip breakfast to keep my blood sugar low."
Answer: B - Carbohydrates should be limited to 40-50% of total calories, distributed in
small, frequent meals throughout the day. Skipping meals can cause hypoglycemia or
ketosis.
---
9. A nurse is planning care for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is
experiencing pregnancy-induced hypertension. Which of the following interventions
should the nurse include in the plan?
A. Restrict fluid intake to 1,000 mL per day
B. Encourage bed rest in a lateral position
C. Increase dietary sodium intake
D. Limit protein intake to 40 grams per day
Answer: B - Lateral (left side-lying) position improves blood flow to the placenta and
kidneys. Fluid restriction is not typically recommended, sodium should not be
restricted or increased excessively, and protein intake should be adequate.
---
10. A nurse is assessing a 12-month-old infant during a well-child visit. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. The infant has 6 teeth
B. The infant cannot walk independently
C. The infant says "mama" and "dada"
D. The infant has a birth weight that has doubled
Answer: D - Birth weight should have TRIPLED by 12 months (not doubled). Six teeth,
walking with support, and saying mama/dada are all appropriate for this age.
---
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, ## PSYCHOSOCIAL INTEGRITY
11. A nurse is caring for a client who has major depressive disorder. Which of the
following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Flight of ideas
B. Hypersomnia
C. Decreased concentration
D. Euphoria
Answer: C - Major depressive disorder includes decreased concentration, insomnia
(not hypersomnia, though atypical depression can cause it), anhedonia, feelings of
worthlessness, and psychomotor retardation. Flight of ideas and euphoria are
associated with mania.
---
12. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has anorexia nervosa. Which of
the following interventions should the nurse include?
A. Allow the client to eat meals in their room
B. Monitor the client for 1 hour after meals
C. Weigh the client weekly
D. Provide high-calorie supplements between meals
Answer: B - The client should be monitored for at least 1 hour (or 2 hours) after meals
to prevent purging behaviors. Weighing should be daily (not weekly), meals should be
supervised, and supplements should be part of the meal plan (not hidden between
meals).
---
13. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which
of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?
A. Naloxone
B. Chlordiazepoxide
C. Disulfiram
D. Acamprosate
Answer: B - Benzodiazepines (like chlordiazepoxide or lorazepam) are the treatment of
choice for acute alcohol withdrawal to prevent seizures and delirium tremens.
Disulfiram and acamprosate are for maintaining sobriety, not acute withdrawal.
---
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