PHARMACOLO NU 120 Rachael Heidebrink vSim Feedback
Log Assessment Actual Exam 2026/2027 – Complete 30
Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
SECTION A: Recognizing Cues – Assessment & Medication Data
Collection (Q1–Q5)
Q1: Rachael Heidebrink, 61 years old, is on post-operative day 1 following a
laparoscopic sigmoid colectomy for diverticulitis and is on bed rest. At 1430 she reports
sudden chest tightness and shortness of breath. Assessment reveals HR 115/min, RR
28/min, SpO2 89% on room air, BP 118/76, and clear lung sounds. Which finding is the
most urgent cue for the nurse to report to the provider?
A. Incisional pain rated 3/10 at the surgical site
B. Sudden dyspnea with SpO2 89% and tachycardia (HR 115) — possible pulmonary
embolism [CORRECT]
C. Oral temperature of 37.1°C
D. Mild nausea with bowel sounds present ×4
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acute hypoxia, dyspnea, and tachycardia in a post-operative, immobile patient
are red-flag cues for PE requiring immediate notification (ABC priority). Pain 3/10, a
low-grade-normal temperature, and nausea are expected post-operative findings and not
urgent.
Q2: The nurse is preparing to administer the ordered warfarin 5 mg PO at 1700. Which
data must be collected and reviewed before administration?
A. Family history of coronary artery disease
B. Frequency of bowel sounds only
C. The patient's preference for tablet versus liquid form
D. The most recent INR result, current vital signs, and any history of bleeding or use of
over-the-counter aspirin/NSAIDs [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Safe warfarin administration requires a current INR, bleeding assessment,
and interaction screening (aspirin/NSAIDs potentiate bleeding). Family history, bowel
, sounds alone, and dosage-form preference do not determine whether the anticoagulant
dose is safe to give.
Q3: Within the vSim environment for NU 120, which feature provides a time-stamped
record of all actions taken (assessments, medications given, calls made) for review and
reflection after the scenario ends?
A. The Feedback Log [CORRECT]
B. The pre-simulation quiz
C. The SBAR report document
D. The concept map viewer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The vSim Feedback Log chronologically records each learner action for
post-scenario evaluation and reflection. The pre-quiz tests baseline knowledge, the
SBAR document provides handover content, and the concept map is an organizational
tool — none log actions.
Q4: Which statement accurately describes the classification and mechanism of action
of warfarin?
A. A direct thrombin inhibitor that acts on factor IIa
B. A glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor that prevents platelet aggregation
C. A vitamin K antagonist that inhibits hepatic synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and
X [CORRECT]
D. A potentiator of antithrombin III that inactivates thrombin and factor Xa
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Warfarin antagonizes vitamin K, blocking γ-carboxylation of factors II, VII, IX,
and X. Option D describes heparin, A describes dabigatran, and B describes antiplatelet
agents such as eptifibatide.
Q5: At 0600 the nurse assesses the anticoagulated post-operative patient and notes
gum oozing, a dark tarry stool in the bedpan, HR 112/min (was 78), and BP 98/60 (was
122/78). Which group of findings should the nurse recognize as cues of possible active
GI bleeding?
A. Pink incision with staples intact and afebrile status
B. Melena, gum oozing, hypotension, and tachycardia [CORRECT]
C. Light yellow urine and bowel sounds ×4
D. Incisional pain rated 2/10 with no guarding
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Melena plus mucosal oozing with compensatory tachycardia and
hypotension are classic cues of active blood loss requiring immediate provider
Log Assessment Actual Exam 2026/2027 – Complete 30
Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
SECTION A: Recognizing Cues – Assessment & Medication Data
Collection (Q1–Q5)
Q1: Rachael Heidebrink, 61 years old, is on post-operative day 1 following a
laparoscopic sigmoid colectomy for diverticulitis and is on bed rest. At 1430 she reports
sudden chest tightness and shortness of breath. Assessment reveals HR 115/min, RR
28/min, SpO2 89% on room air, BP 118/76, and clear lung sounds. Which finding is the
most urgent cue for the nurse to report to the provider?
A. Incisional pain rated 3/10 at the surgical site
B. Sudden dyspnea with SpO2 89% and tachycardia (HR 115) — possible pulmonary
embolism [CORRECT]
C. Oral temperature of 37.1°C
D. Mild nausea with bowel sounds present ×4
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acute hypoxia, dyspnea, and tachycardia in a post-operative, immobile patient
are red-flag cues for PE requiring immediate notification (ABC priority). Pain 3/10, a
low-grade-normal temperature, and nausea are expected post-operative findings and not
urgent.
Q2: The nurse is preparing to administer the ordered warfarin 5 mg PO at 1700. Which
data must be collected and reviewed before administration?
A. Family history of coronary artery disease
B. Frequency of bowel sounds only
C. The patient's preference for tablet versus liquid form
D. The most recent INR result, current vital signs, and any history of bleeding or use of
over-the-counter aspirin/NSAIDs [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Safe warfarin administration requires a current INR, bleeding assessment,
and interaction screening (aspirin/NSAIDs potentiate bleeding). Family history, bowel
, sounds alone, and dosage-form preference do not determine whether the anticoagulant
dose is safe to give.
Q3: Within the vSim environment for NU 120, which feature provides a time-stamped
record of all actions taken (assessments, medications given, calls made) for review and
reflection after the scenario ends?
A. The Feedback Log [CORRECT]
B. The pre-simulation quiz
C. The SBAR report document
D. The concept map viewer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The vSim Feedback Log chronologically records each learner action for
post-scenario evaluation and reflection. The pre-quiz tests baseline knowledge, the
SBAR document provides handover content, and the concept map is an organizational
tool — none log actions.
Q4: Which statement accurately describes the classification and mechanism of action
of warfarin?
A. A direct thrombin inhibitor that acts on factor IIa
B. A glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor that prevents platelet aggregation
C. A vitamin K antagonist that inhibits hepatic synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and
X [CORRECT]
D. A potentiator of antithrombin III that inactivates thrombin and factor Xa
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Warfarin antagonizes vitamin K, blocking γ-carboxylation of factors II, VII, IX,
and X. Option D describes heparin, A describes dabigatran, and B describes antiplatelet
agents such as eptifibatide.
Q5: At 0600 the nurse assesses the anticoagulated post-operative patient and notes
gum oozing, a dark tarry stool in the bedpan, HR 112/min (was 78), and BP 98/60 (was
122/78). Which group of findings should the nurse recognize as cues of possible active
GI bleeding?
A. Pink incision with staples intact and afebrile status
B. Melena, gum oozing, hypotension, and tachycardia [CORRECT]
C. Light yellow urine and bowel sounds ×4
D. Incisional pain rated 2/10 with no guarding
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Melena plus mucosal oozing with compensatory tachycardia and
hypotension are classic cues of active blood loss requiring immediate provider
