WGU D236 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
COMPREHENSIVE FINAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
WITH DETAILED EXPLANATIONS
1. A patient presents with cellular changes involving the replacement of one mature cell type
by another, less differentiated cell type due to chronic irritation. Which term describes this
process?
A. Atrophy
B. Hypertrophy
C. Dysplasia
D. Metaplasia
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one mature cell type
by another, often as an adaptation to chronic irritation or inflammation, such as in the
respiratory tract of smokers.
2. In the context of cellular injury, what is the primary difference between necrosis and
apoptosis?
A. Necrosis is programmed, whereas apoptosis is accidental.
,B. Apoptosis causes an inflammatory response, while necrosis does not.
C. Apoptosis only occurs in cancerous cells.
D. Necrosis involves cell swelling and membrane rupture, while apoptosis involves cell
shrinkage and fragmentation.
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Necrosis is passive, accidental cell death characterized by
swelling and loss of membrane integrity leading to inflammation. Apoptosis is active,
programmed cell death where the cell shrinks and fragments without inducing
inflammation.
3. A 25-year-old male with Cystic Fibrosis has a genetic profile indicating a mutation on
chromosome 7. What is the inheritance pattern of this disease?
A. Autosomal dominant
B. X-linked dominant
C. Autosomal recessive
D. X-linked recessive
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Cystic Fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder, meaning an
individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene (one from each parent) to manifest
the disease.
, 4. Which chromosomal abnormality is characterized by the presence of only one X
chromosome in a female (45,X)?
A. Down Syndrome
B. Klinefelter Syndrome
C. Turner Syndrome
D. Edwards Syndrome
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Turner Syndrome (45,X) occurs when a female is born with only
one X chromosome, resulting in short stature, ovarian failure, and webbed neck.
5. During the inflammatory response, which chemical mediator is primarily responsible for
increasing capillary permeability and vasodilation immediately following injury?
A. Histamine
B. Leukotrienes
C. Interleukin-1
D. Interferon
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Histamine, released primarily by mast cells, causes immediate
vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, leading to the redness and swelling
associated with inflammation.
COMPREHENSIVE FINAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
WITH DETAILED EXPLANATIONS
1. A patient presents with cellular changes involving the replacement of one mature cell type
by another, less differentiated cell type due to chronic irritation. Which term describes this
process?
A. Atrophy
B. Hypertrophy
C. Dysplasia
D. Metaplasia
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one mature cell type
by another, often as an adaptation to chronic irritation or inflammation, such as in the
respiratory tract of smokers.
2. In the context of cellular injury, what is the primary difference between necrosis and
apoptosis?
A. Necrosis is programmed, whereas apoptosis is accidental.
,B. Apoptosis causes an inflammatory response, while necrosis does not.
C. Apoptosis only occurs in cancerous cells.
D. Necrosis involves cell swelling and membrane rupture, while apoptosis involves cell
shrinkage and fragmentation.
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Necrosis is passive, accidental cell death characterized by
swelling and loss of membrane integrity leading to inflammation. Apoptosis is active,
programmed cell death where the cell shrinks and fragments without inducing
inflammation.
3. A 25-year-old male with Cystic Fibrosis has a genetic profile indicating a mutation on
chromosome 7. What is the inheritance pattern of this disease?
A. Autosomal dominant
B. X-linked dominant
C. Autosomal recessive
D. X-linked recessive
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Cystic Fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder, meaning an
individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene (one from each parent) to manifest
the disease.
, 4. Which chromosomal abnormality is characterized by the presence of only one X
chromosome in a female (45,X)?
A. Down Syndrome
B. Klinefelter Syndrome
C. Turner Syndrome
D. Edwards Syndrome
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Turner Syndrome (45,X) occurs when a female is born with only
one X chromosome, resulting in short stature, ovarian failure, and webbed neck.
5. During the inflammatory response, which chemical mediator is primarily responsible for
increasing capillary permeability and vasodilation immediately following injury?
A. Histamine
B. Leukotrienes
C. Interleukin-1
D. Interferon
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Histamine, released primarily by mast cells, causes immediate
vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, leading to the redness and swelling
associated with inflammation.
