Galen College NUR 243 Maternal Final Practice Exam 100 Questions
with Answers & Rationales | Comprehensive Review
Practice questions 1 to 4
1. A client at 10 weeks has cramping, bleeding, and syncope. Which assessment
should occur first?
A. Airway, breathing, circulation, and hemodynamic status
B. Future contraception preferences
C. Breastfeeding intentions
D. Routine dietary preferences
2. A client with possible ruptured ectopic pregnancy asks to walk to the
bathroom while dizzy. What is safest?
A. Delay all vital signs
B. Keep the client assisted in bed and obtain urgent evaluation
C. Allow independent walking
D. Encourage stairs
3. Early pregnancy pain is present despite no visible bleeding. Which statement
is correct?
A. Serious internal bleeding remains possible
B. No vaginal bleeding excludes rupture
C. Only external loss affects circulation
D. Pain alone guarantees normal pregnancy
4. Why might serial hCG and ultrasound both be needed in early pregnancy
evaluation?
A. They determine infant temperament
B. Together they help assess pregnancy location and progression
C. Either guarantees diagnosis in every single measurement
D. They replace maternal symptom assessment
,Practice questions 5 to 8
5. An early-pregnancy client is stable but distressed by uncertain findings.
Which response is best?
A. Avoid all explanation
B. Guarantee viability
C. Declare loss before confirmation
D. Explain the follow-up plan and warning signs without promising the outcome
6. A client at 28 weeks reports headache and blurry vision by telephone. What is
the best advice?
A. Wait until the next appointment
B. Use exercise as the sole treatment
C. Assume a new eyeglass prescription is the cause
D. Seek prompt obstetric assessment
7. In suspected preeclampsia, which assessment set is most useful?
A. Only ankle size
B. Only maternal appetite
C. Blood pressure, symptoms, platelets, renal and liver findings
D. Only fetal sex
8. A client on magnesium has urine output 15 mL/hour. What should the nurse
do?
A. Report low output and evaluate clearance and toxicity risk
B. Ignore it if the fetal baseline is normal
C. Encourage independent walking without assessment
D. Automatically increase magnesium
,Practice questions 9 to 12
9. An order calls for magnesium 2 g/hour from 20 g in 500 mL. What rate is
needed?
A. 25 mL/hour
B. 200 mL/hour
C. 50 mL/hour
D. 100 mL/hour
10. Magnesium 4 g is ordered from 40 g in 1,000 mL. How much solution
contains the dose?
A. 400 mL
B. 40 mL
C. 100 mL
D. 250 mL
11. A client with HELLP has platelets 48,000/mm3. Which concern is important?
A. No risk if blood pressure is normal
B. Need for routine intramuscular injections
C. Bleeding and anesthesia safety
D. Guaranteed normal clotting
12. The nurse notes new crackles during treatment of severe preeclampsia.
Which action is appropriate?
A. Ignore lung findings if urine protein is unchanged
B. Assess oxygenation and escalate possible pulmonary edema
C. Encourage prolonged supine rest
D. Increase fluids automatically
, Practice questions 13 to 16
13. A client after delivery says, 'My headache cannot be preeclampsia now.'
Which response is best?
A. Only the newborn can have postpartum problems
B. That is always correct
C. All headaches after birth are spinal headaches
D. Hypertensive complications can occur postpartum, so the headache needs
assessment
14. Which change best indicates response to hemorrhage resuscitation?
A. Improved mental status, blood pressure, and urine output
B. Continued tachycardia with dizziness
C. Progressive pallor
D. Declining urine output
15. During a maternal emergency, which communication is most effective?
A. Say only something seems wrong
B. Use vague reassurances without findings
C. Wait until documentation is complete
D. State the concern, key findings, and specific help needed
16. A client at 34 weeks with painless bleeding has never had placental location
confirmed. Which action is safest?
A. Encourage intercourse
B. Perform repeated digital exams immediately
C. Avoid digital cervical examination until previa is excluded
D. Delay all fetal assessment
with Answers & Rationales | Comprehensive Review
Practice questions 1 to 4
1. A client at 10 weeks has cramping, bleeding, and syncope. Which assessment
should occur first?
A. Airway, breathing, circulation, and hemodynamic status
B. Future contraception preferences
C. Breastfeeding intentions
D. Routine dietary preferences
2. A client with possible ruptured ectopic pregnancy asks to walk to the
bathroom while dizzy. What is safest?
A. Delay all vital signs
B. Keep the client assisted in bed and obtain urgent evaluation
C. Allow independent walking
D. Encourage stairs
3. Early pregnancy pain is present despite no visible bleeding. Which statement
is correct?
A. Serious internal bleeding remains possible
B. No vaginal bleeding excludes rupture
C. Only external loss affects circulation
D. Pain alone guarantees normal pregnancy
4. Why might serial hCG and ultrasound both be needed in early pregnancy
evaluation?
A. They determine infant temperament
B. Together they help assess pregnancy location and progression
C. Either guarantees diagnosis in every single measurement
D. They replace maternal symptom assessment
,Practice questions 5 to 8
5. An early-pregnancy client is stable but distressed by uncertain findings.
Which response is best?
A. Avoid all explanation
B. Guarantee viability
C. Declare loss before confirmation
D. Explain the follow-up plan and warning signs without promising the outcome
6. A client at 28 weeks reports headache and blurry vision by telephone. What is
the best advice?
A. Wait until the next appointment
B. Use exercise as the sole treatment
C. Assume a new eyeglass prescription is the cause
D. Seek prompt obstetric assessment
7. In suspected preeclampsia, which assessment set is most useful?
A. Only ankle size
B. Only maternal appetite
C. Blood pressure, symptoms, platelets, renal and liver findings
D. Only fetal sex
8. A client on magnesium has urine output 15 mL/hour. What should the nurse
do?
A. Report low output and evaluate clearance and toxicity risk
B. Ignore it if the fetal baseline is normal
C. Encourage independent walking without assessment
D. Automatically increase magnesium
,Practice questions 9 to 12
9. An order calls for magnesium 2 g/hour from 20 g in 500 mL. What rate is
needed?
A. 25 mL/hour
B. 200 mL/hour
C. 50 mL/hour
D. 100 mL/hour
10. Magnesium 4 g is ordered from 40 g in 1,000 mL. How much solution
contains the dose?
A. 400 mL
B. 40 mL
C. 100 mL
D. 250 mL
11. A client with HELLP has platelets 48,000/mm3. Which concern is important?
A. No risk if blood pressure is normal
B. Need for routine intramuscular injections
C. Bleeding and anesthesia safety
D. Guaranteed normal clotting
12. The nurse notes new crackles during treatment of severe preeclampsia.
Which action is appropriate?
A. Ignore lung findings if urine protein is unchanged
B. Assess oxygenation and escalate possible pulmonary edema
C. Encourage prolonged supine rest
D. Increase fluids automatically
, Practice questions 13 to 16
13. A client after delivery says, 'My headache cannot be preeclampsia now.'
Which response is best?
A. Only the newborn can have postpartum problems
B. That is always correct
C. All headaches after birth are spinal headaches
D. Hypertensive complications can occur postpartum, so the headache needs
assessment
14. Which change best indicates response to hemorrhage resuscitation?
A. Improved mental status, blood pressure, and urine output
B. Continued tachycardia with dizziness
C. Progressive pallor
D. Declining urine output
15. During a maternal emergency, which communication is most effective?
A. Say only something seems wrong
B. Use vague reassurances without findings
C. Wait until documentation is complete
D. State the concern, key findings, and specific help needed
16. A client at 34 weeks with painless bleeding has never had placental location
confirmed. Which action is safest?
A. Encourage intercourse
B. Perform repeated digital exams immediately
C. Avoid digital cervical examination until previa is excluded
D. Delay all fetal assessment
