ATI PN MATERNAL–NEWBORN EXAM 2026
60-Question Comprehensive Practice Assessment — Answers and Rationales
Format: Practical Nursing (PN) | Maternal–Newborn Nursing | NCLEX-PN/NGN-style practice
This original study assessment includes multiple-choice questions, select-all-that-apply (SATA), clinical scenarios, prioritization,
answers, and rationales. These are practice questions, not verified or reproduced questions from the actual ATI 2026 proctored exam.
The rationales explain clinical principles and are not an official ATI marking scheme.
Questions 1–10: Prenatal Care and Maternal Assessment
Question 1. A nurse is assessing a client at 10 weeks of gestation who reports nausea in the morning.
Which instruction should the nurse provide?
A. Eat three large meals daily.
B. Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed.
C. Drink large amounts of fluid with meals.
D. Lie flat immediately after eating.
Correct answer: B. Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed.
Rationale: Small, frequent meals and dry crackers before rising may reduce nausea during early pregnancy. Large meals and
lying flat after eating can worsen gastrointestinal discomfort.
Question 2. A pregnant client at 30 weeks reports a severe headache, blurred vision, and epigastric
pain. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Recommend rest at home.
B. Encourage increased oral fluids.
C. Arrange immediate obstetric evaluation.
D. Reassure the client that these symptoms are expected.
Correct answer: C. Arrange immediate obstetric evaluation.
Rationale: Severe headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain can indicate preeclampsia with severe features. Prompt
assessment is necessary to protect both the pregnant client and fetus.
Question 3. A nurse reviews the laboratory results of a pregnant client. Which finding is most
concerning for possible maternal anemia?
A. Hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL
B. Platelet count 220,000/mm³
C. White blood cell count 9,000/mm³
D. Blood glucose 88 mg/dL
Correct answer: A. Hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL
Rationale: A hemoglobin level of 9.2 g/dL is low during pregnancy and warrants evaluation for anemia, including possible iron
deficiency. The other results are generally within expected ranges, depending on clinical context.
ATI PN Maternal–Newborn Practice Assessment | Original study questions Page 1
, Question 4. A nurse teaches a client who is planning pregnancy about folic acid supplementation.
Which statement demonstrates understanding?
A. “Folic acid prevents all congenital abnormalities.”
B. “Folic acid reduces the risk of neural tube defects.”
C. “I should begin taking folic acid only during labor.”
D. “Folic acid is unnecessary if I eat vegetables.”
Correct answer: B. Folic acid reduces the risk of neural tube defects.
Rationale: Folic acid taken before conception and during early pregnancy reduces the risk of neural tube defects. The usual
recommendation for people who could become pregnant is 400–800 mcg daily, although some clients need a different
prescribed dose.
Question 5. A pregnant client asks when fetal movement is usually first perceived. Which response is
most appropriate?
A. Between 4 and 6 weeks.
B. Between 8 and 10 weeks.
C. Between 16 and 20 weeks.
D. After 32 weeks in every pregnancy.
Correct answer: C. Between 16 and 20 weeks.
Rationale: Quickening, or the first perception of fetal movement, commonly occurs between 16 and 20 weeks, although it can
occur earlier or later.
Question 6. A nurse provides teaching about warning signs that require prompt evaluation. Which
finding should the nurse identify as concerning?
A. Mild fatigue after activity
B. Occasional urinary frequency
C. Vaginal bleeding
D. Mild breast tenderness
Correct answer: C. Vaginal bleeding
Rationale: Vaginal bleeding during pregnancy requires clinical assessment because it can be associated with pregnancy
complications. Urgency depends on the amount of bleeding, gestational age, pain, and associated symptoms.
Question 7. A client at 28 weeks of gestation asks why the nurse recommends a glucose screening
test. Which response is correct?
A. “It identifies all fetal chromosomal abnormalities.”
B. “It screens for gestational diabetes.”
C. “It determines fetal lung maturity.”
D. “It confirms the fetal presentation.”
Correct answer: B. It screens for gestational diabetes.
Rationale: Gestational diabetes screening is commonly performed between 24 and 28 weeks of pregnancy. Earlier testing may
be appropriate for clients with risk factors.
ATI PN Maternal–Newborn Practice Assessment | Original study questions Page 2
, Question 8. A nurse assesses a pregnant client who is Rh-negative. Which test result is particularly
important when planning Rh immune globulin administration?
A. Maternal antibody screen
B. Maternal urine ketones
C. Maternal serum sodium
D. Maternal platelet count alone
Correct answer: A. Maternal antibody screen
Rationale: The antibody screen helps determine whether the client has developed antibodies against red blood cell antigens.
Rh immune globulin is generally used for eligible unsensitized Rh-negative clients, commonly around 28 weeks and after
delivery when indicated, as well as after certain sensitizing events.
Question 9. A nurse provides teaching about a nonstress test (NST). Which statement correctly
describes a reactive NST?
A. It shows no fetal heart rate variability.
B. It demonstrates appropriate fetal heart rate accelerations.
C. It confirms that labor has started.
D. It diagnoses every possible fetal abnormality.
Correct answer: B. It demonstrates appropriate fetal heart rate accelerations.
Rationale: A reactive NST generally indicates appropriate fetal heart rate accelerations associated with fetal movement.
Criteria depend on gestational age, and a reactive result does not exclude every possible fetal problem.
Question 10. A pregnant client at 34 weeks reports that fetal movement is substantially reduced
compared with the usual pattern. What should the nurse recommend?
A. Wait until the next prenatal appointment.
B. Drink coffee and ignore the change if movement returns briefly.
C. Contact the maternity care team promptly for assessment.
D. Assume reduced movement is normal late in pregnancy.
Correct answer: C. Contact the maternity care team promptly for assessment.
Rationale: A significant decrease in fetal movement requires prompt evaluation. The client should not delay assessment until
the next routine appointment.
Questions 11–20: Labor and Delivery
Question 11. A client in labor has contractions every 3 minutes. Which finding best indicates true
labor?
A. Contractions stop with hydration.
B. Cervical dilation and effacement progress.
C. Discomfort occurs only in the abdomen.
D. Contractions are irregular and unpredictable.
Correct answer: B. Cervical dilation and effacement progress.
Rationale: True labor is characterized by regular contractions associated with progressive cervical change. Contraction
discomfort alone does not reliably distinguish true labor from false labor.
ATI PN Maternal–Newborn Practice Assessment | Original study questions Page 3
60-Question Comprehensive Practice Assessment — Answers and Rationales
Format: Practical Nursing (PN) | Maternal–Newborn Nursing | NCLEX-PN/NGN-style practice
This original study assessment includes multiple-choice questions, select-all-that-apply (SATA), clinical scenarios, prioritization,
answers, and rationales. These are practice questions, not verified or reproduced questions from the actual ATI 2026 proctored exam.
The rationales explain clinical principles and are not an official ATI marking scheme.
Questions 1–10: Prenatal Care and Maternal Assessment
Question 1. A nurse is assessing a client at 10 weeks of gestation who reports nausea in the morning.
Which instruction should the nurse provide?
A. Eat three large meals daily.
B. Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed.
C. Drink large amounts of fluid with meals.
D. Lie flat immediately after eating.
Correct answer: B. Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed.
Rationale: Small, frequent meals and dry crackers before rising may reduce nausea during early pregnancy. Large meals and
lying flat after eating can worsen gastrointestinal discomfort.
Question 2. A pregnant client at 30 weeks reports a severe headache, blurred vision, and epigastric
pain. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Recommend rest at home.
B. Encourage increased oral fluids.
C. Arrange immediate obstetric evaluation.
D. Reassure the client that these symptoms are expected.
Correct answer: C. Arrange immediate obstetric evaluation.
Rationale: Severe headache, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain can indicate preeclampsia with severe features. Prompt
assessment is necessary to protect both the pregnant client and fetus.
Question 3. A nurse reviews the laboratory results of a pregnant client. Which finding is most
concerning for possible maternal anemia?
A. Hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL
B. Platelet count 220,000/mm³
C. White blood cell count 9,000/mm³
D. Blood glucose 88 mg/dL
Correct answer: A. Hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL
Rationale: A hemoglobin level of 9.2 g/dL is low during pregnancy and warrants evaluation for anemia, including possible iron
deficiency. The other results are generally within expected ranges, depending on clinical context.
ATI PN Maternal–Newborn Practice Assessment | Original study questions Page 1
, Question 4. A nurse teaches a client who is planning pregnancy about folic acid supplementation.
Which statement demonstrates understanding?
A. “Folic acid prevents all congenital abnormalities.”
B. “Folic acid reduces the risk of neural tube defects.”
C. “I should begin taking folic acid only during labor.”
D. “Folic acid is unnecessary if I eat vegetables.”
Correct answer: B. Folic acid reduces the risk of neural tube defects.
Rationale: Folic acid taken before conception and during early pregnancy reduces the risk of neural tube defects. The usual
recommendation for people who could become pregnant is 400–800 mcg daily, although some clients need a different
prescribed dose.
Question 5. A pregnant client asks when fetal movement is usually first perceived. Which response is
most appropriate?
A. Between 4 and 6 weeks.
B. Between 8 and 10 weeks.
C. Between 16 and 20 weeks.
D. After 32 weeks in every pregnancy.
Correct answer: C. Between 16 and 20 weeks.
Rationale: Quickening, or the first perception of fetal movement, commonly occurs between 16 and 20 weeks, although it can
occur earlier or later.
Question 6. A nurse provides teaching about warning signs that require prompt evaluation. Which
finding should the nurse identify as concerning?
A. Mild fatigue after activity
B. Occasional urinary frequency
C. Vaginal bleeding
D. Mild breast tenderness
Correct answer: C. Vaginal bleeding
Rationale: Vaginal bleeding during pregnancy requires clinical assessment because it can be associated with pregnancy
complications. Urgency depends on the amount of bleeding, gestational age, pain, and associated symptoms.
Question 7. A client at 28 weeks of gestation asks why the nurse recommends a glucose screening
test. Which response is correct?
A. “It identifies all fetal chromosomal abnormalities.”
B. “It screens for gestational diabetes.”
C. “It determines fetal lung maturity.”
D. “It confirms the fetal presentation.”
Correct answer: B. It screens for gestational diabetes.
Rationale: Gestational diabetes screening is commonly performed between 24 and 28 weeks of pregnancy. Earlier testing may
be appropriate for clients with risk factors.
ATI PN Maternal–Newborn Practice Assessment | Original study questions Page 2
, Question 8. A nurse assesses a pregnant client who is Rh-negative. Which test result is particularly
important when planning Rh immune globulin administration?
A. Maternal antibody screen
B. Maternal urine ketones
C. Maternal serum sodium
D. Maternal platelet count alone
Correct answer: A. Maternal antibody screen
Rationale: The antibody screen helps determine whether the client has developed antibodies against red blood cell antigens.
Rh immune globulin is generally used for eligible unsensitized Rh-negative clients, commonly around 28 weeks and after
delivery when indicated, as well as after certain sensitizing events.
Question 9. A nurse provides teaching about a nonstress test (NST). Which statement correctly
describes a reactive NST?
A. It shows no fetal heart rate variability.
B. It demonstrates appropriate fetal heart rate accelerations.
C. It confirms that labor has started.
D. It diagnoses every possible fetal abnormality.
Correct answer: B. It demonstrates appropriate fetal heart rate accelerations.
Rationale: A reactive NST generally indicates appropriate fetal heart rate accelerations associated with fetal movement.
Criteria depend on gestational age, and a reactive result does not exclude every possible fetal problem.
Question 10. A pregnant client at 34 weeks reports that fetal movement is substantially reduced
compared with the usual pattern. What should the nurse recommend?
A. Wait until the next prenatal appointment.
B. Drink coffee and ignore the change if movement returns briefly.
C. Contact the maternity care team promptly for assessment.
D. Assume reduced movement is normal late in pregnancy.
Correct answer: C. Contact the maternity care team promptly for assessment.
Rationale: A significant decrease in fetal movement requires prompt evaluation. The client should not delay assessment until
the next routine appointment.
Questions 11–20: Labor and Delivery
Question 11. A client in labor has contractions every 3 minutes. Which finding best indicates true
labor?
A. Contractions stop with hydration.
B. Cervical dilation and effacement progress.
C. Discomfort occurs only in the abdomen.
D. Contractions are irregular and unpredictable.
Correct answer: B. Cervical dilation and effacement progress.
Rationale: True labor is characterized by regular contractions associated with progressive cervical change. Contraction
discomfort alone does not reliably distinguish true labor from false labor.
ATI PN Maternal–Newborn Practice Assessment | Original study questions Page 3
