West Coast University NURS 340 Public Health Nursing: Exam
1 - Questions with Correct Answers
100 questions
1. Stereotyping differs from generalization in that stereotyping:
A. Applies a belief to an individual without assessing whether it fits
B. Is a starting point to be verified
C. Is always accurate
D. Is required for cultural competence
Correct Answer: A. Applies a belief to an individual without assessing whether it fits
Rationale: Avoid stereotyping.
2. Using a professional medical interpreter rather than a family member:
A. Is never necessary
B. Is prohibited by law
C. Increases errors
D. Improves accuracy and protects confidentiality
Correct Answer: D. Improves accuracy and protects confidentiality
Rationale: Title VI, CLAS standards.
3. The public health nurse's role as case manager involves:
A. Performing surgery
B. Writing laws
C. Dispensing all medications
D. Coordinating services and resources to meet client needs efficiently
Correct Answer: D. Coordinating services and resources to meet client needs efficiently
Rationale: Linking services.
4. Teaching seat belt use in a high school is:
A. Secondary prevention
B. Primary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Quaternary prevention
Correct Answer: B. Primary prevention
Rationale: Prevents injury.
5. The 'upstream' approach in public health focuses on:
A. Treating sick individuals downstream
B. Hospital discharge planning
C. Addressing root causes of illness such as poverty and policy
D. Emergency care
Correct Answer: C. Addressing root causes of illness such as poverty and policy
Rationale: McKinlay's river analogy.
6. Health equity is:
A. Equal spending per person
B. The state in which everyone has a fair and just opportunity to attain their highest level of health
C. Identical outcomes guaranteed
D. Free care for everyone
Correct Answer: B. The state in which everyone has a fair and just opportunity to attain their
highest level of health
Rationale: CDC definition.
,7. The ANA Scope and Standards for Public Health Nursing include standards such as:
A. Surgical asepsis
B. Medication administration only
C. Billing
D. Assessment, population diagnosis, planning, implementation and evaluation
Correct Answer: D. Assessment, population diagnosis, planning, implementation and
evaluation
Rationale: Nursing process for populations.
8. The three core functions of public health are:
A. Diagnosis, treatment and rehabilitation
B. Assessment, policy development and assurance
C. Planning, staffing and budgeting
D. Prevention, cure and palliation
Correct Answer: B. Assessment, policy development and assurance
Rationale: IOM 1988 'The Future of Public Health'.
9. Epidemiology is the study of:
A. The distribution and determinants of health-related states in populations and application to control
health problems
B. Individual patient treatment
C. Hospital finance
D. Genetics only
Correct Answer: A. The distribution and determinants of health-related states in populations
and application to control health problems
Rationale: Classic definition.
10. Lead-time bias in screening refers to:
A. Missing slow-growing cancers
B. Apparent longer survival because disease is diagnosed earlier, not because death is delayed
C. Healthier volunteers
D. Errors in labs
Correct Answer: B. Apparent longer survival because disease is diagnosed earlier, not
because death is delayed
Rationale: Screening bias.
11. Sensitivity of a screening test is:
A. The proportion of people with the disease who test positive
B. The proportion without disease who test negative
C. The proportion of positives who have disease
D. The overall accuracy
Correct Answer: A. The proportion of people with the disease who test positive
Rationale: True positive rate.
12. Analytic epidemiology focuses on:
A. Only counting cases
B. Only mapping cases
C. Treating patients
D. Why and how disease occurs (determinants and associations)
Correct Answer: D. Why and how disease occurs (determinants and associations)
Rationale: Testing hypotheses.
, 13. A point-source epidemic curve typically shows:
A. A sharp rise and fall within one incubation period
B. Multiple peaks over months
C. A flat line
D. A slow continuous increase
Correct Answer: A. A sharp rise and fall within one incubation period
Rationale: Common exposure.
14. As disease prevalence increases, the positive predictive value of a test:
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Stays the same
D. Becomes zero
Correct Answer: A. Increases
Rationale: More true positives.
15. The natural history of disease includes:
A. Prepathogenesis (susceptibility) and pathogenesis (subclinical, clinical, recovery/disability/death)
stages
B. Only the clinical stage
C. Only treatment
D. Only death
Correct Answer: A. Prepathogenesis (susceptibility) and pathogenesis (subclinical, clinical,
recovery/disability/death) stages
Rationale: Leavell and Clark.
16. The herd immunity threshold is approximately:
A. 1/R0
B. 1 - 1/R0
C. R0 - 1
D. R0 squared
Correct Answer: B. 1 - 1/R0
Rationale: e.g., R0 = 4 gives 75%.
17. Influenza vaccination is recommended annually for:
A. Only adults over 65
B. Everyone 6 months and older without contraindications
C. Only health care workers
D. Only children
Correct Answer: B. Everyone 6 months and older without contraindications
Rationale: ACIP routine recommendation.
18. A reportable (notifiable) disease must be:
A. Reported by providers and labs to the public health authority as required by law
B. Reported only if the patient consents
C. Reported only to insurers
D. Never reported
Correct Answer: A. Reported by providers and labs to the public health authority as required
by law
Rationale: State-mandated lists.
1 - Questions with Correct Answers
100 questions
1. Stereotyping differs from generalization in that stereotyping:
A. Applies a belief to an individual without assessing whether it fits
B. Is a starting point to be verified
C. Is always accurate
D. Is required for cultural competence
Correct Answer: A. Applies a belief to an individual without assessing whether it fits
Rationale: Avoid stereotyping.
2. Using a professional medical interpreter rather than a family member:
A. Is never necessary
B. Is prohibited by law
C. Increases errors
D. Improves accuracy and protects confidentiality
Correct Answer: D. Improves accuracy and protects confidentiality
Rationale: Title VI, CLAS standards.
3. The public health nurse's role as case manager involves:
A. Performing surgery
B. Writing laws
C. Dispensing all medications
D. Coordinating services and resources to meet client needs efficiently
Correct Answer: D. Coordinating services and resources to meet client needs efficiently
Rationale: Linking services.
4. Teaching seat belt use in a high school is:
A. Secondary prevention
B. Primary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. Quaternary prevention
Correct Answer: B. Primary prevention
Rationale: Prevents injury.
5. The 'upstream' approach in public health focuses on:
A. Treating sick individuals downstream
B. Hospital discharge planning
C. Addressing root causes of illness such as poverty and policy
D. Emergency care
Correct Answer: C. Addressing root causes of illness such as poverty and policy
Rationale: McKinlay's river analogy.
6. Health equity is:
A. Equal spending per person
B. The state in which everyone has a fair and just opportunity to attain their highest level of health
C. Identical outcomes guaranteed
D. Free care for everyone
Correct Answer: B. The state in which everyone has a fair and just opportunity to attain their
highest level of health
Rationale: CDC definition.
,7. The ANA Scope and Standards for Public Health Nursing include standards such as:
A. Surgical asepsis
B. Medication administration only
C. Billing
D. Assessment, population diagnosis, planning, implementation and evaluation
Correct Answer: D. Assessment, population diagnosis, planning, implementation and
evaluation
Rationale: Nursing process for populations.
8. The three core functions of public health are:
A. Diagnosis, treatment and rehabilitation
B. Assessment, policy development and assurance
C. Planning, staffing and budgeting
D. Prevention, cure and palliation
Correct Answer: B. Assessment, policy development and assurance
Rationale: IOM 1988 'The Future of Public Health'.
9. Epidemiology is the study of:
A. The distribution and determinants of health-related states in populations and application to control
health problems
B. Individual patient treatment
C. Hospital finance
D. Genetics only
Correct Answer: A. The distribution and determinants of health-related states in populations
and application to control health problems
Rationale: Classic definition.
10. Lead-time bias in screening refers to:
A. Missing slow-growing cancers
B. Apparent longer survival because disease is diagnosed earlier, not because death is delayed
C. Healthier volunteers
D. Errors in labs
Correct Answer: B. Apparent longer survival because disease is diagnosed earlier, not
because death is delayed
Rationale: Screening bias.
11. Sensitivity of a screening test is:
A. The proportion of people with the disease who test positive
B. The proportion without disease who test negative
C. The proportion of positives who have disease
D. The overall accuracy
Correct Answer: A. The proportion of people with the disease who test positive
Rationale: True positive rate.
12. Analytic epidemiology focuses on:
A. Only counting cases
B. Only mapping cases
C. Treating patients
D. Why and how disease occurs (determinants and associations)
Correct Answer: D. Why and how disease occurs (determinants and associations)
Rationale: Testing hypotheses.
, 13. A point-source epidemic curve typically shows:
A. A sharp rise and fall within one incubation period
B. Multiple peaks over months
C. A flat line
D. A slow continuous increase
Correct Answer: A. A sharp rise and fall within one incubation period
Rationale: Common exposure.
14. As disease prevalence increases, the positive predictive value of a test:
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Stays the same
D. Becomes zero
Correct Answer: A. Increases
Rationale: More true positives.
15. The natural history of disease includes:
A. Prepathogenesis (susceptibility) and pathogenesis (subclinical, clinical, recovery/disability/death)
stages
B. Only the clinical stage
C. Only treatment
D. Only death
Correct Answer: A. Prepathogenesis (susceptibility) and pathogenesis (subclinical, clinical,
recovery/disability/death) stages
Rationale: Leavell and Clark.
16. The herd immunity threshold is approximately:
A. 1/R0
B. 1 - 1/R0
C. R0 - 1
D. R0 squared
Correct Answer: B. 1 - 1/R0
Rationale: e.g., R0 = 4 gives 75%.
17. Influenza vaccination is recommended annually for:
A. Only adults over 65
B. Everyone 6 months and older without contraindications
C. Only health care workers
D. Only children
Correct Answer: B. Everyone 6 months and older without contraindications
Rationale: ACIP routine recommendation.
18. A reportable (notifiable) disease must be:
A. Reported by providers and labs to the public health authority as required by law
B. Reported only if the patient consents
C. Reported only to insurers
D. Never reported
Correct Answer: A. Reported by providers and labs to the public health authority as required
by law
Rationale: State-mandated lists.
